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NURSING Test Bank Pathophysiology Concepts of Human Disease by Matthew Sorenson

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NURSING Test Bank Pathophysiology Concepts of Human Disease by Matthew Sorenson

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NURSING Pathophysiology
Course
NURSING Pathophysiology

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NURSING Test Bank Pathophysiology Concepts of Human Disease
by Matthew Sorenson
Question 1
A client with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is found to have a cellular change
in the esophagus, from squamous to columnar epithelium. This cellular adaptation is known as:
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia

Correct Answer: C) Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another,
often less differentiated, cell type. In this case, the normal squamous epithelium of the
esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is better able to withstand the acidic
environment. This specific change is known as Barrett's esophagus.
Question 2
Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury?
A) Hypoxia
B) Chemical injury
C) Infectious agents
D) Genetic factors

Correct Answer: A) Hypoxia
Rationale: Hypoxia, or lack of sufficient oxygen, is the single most common cause of
cellular injury. Without oxygen, the cell cannot generate enough ATP to power its essential
functions, leading to cellular swelling, damage to the cell membrane, and eventual cell
death if oxygen is not restored.

Question 3
A patient has a large, benign tumor in their abdomen. Which characteristic is associated with a
benign tumor?
A) It is poorly differentiated.
B) It has the ability to metastasize.
C) It is usually encapsulated and well-differentiated.
D) It invades and destroys surrounding tissues.

Correct Answer: C) It is usually encapsulated and well-differentiated.
Rationale: Benign tumors are characterized by slow growth, well-defined capsules that
prevent them from invading surrounding tissue, and cells that are well-differentiated
(resembling the tissue of origin). They do not metastasize. Malignant tumors exhibit the
characteristics in options A, B, and D.

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Question 4
The process of programmed cell death, which is a normal and necessary part of cellular life, is
called:
A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Atrophy
D) Autophagy

Correct Answer: B) Apoptosis
Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, regulated process of "cellular suicide" that eliminates
aged, damaged, or unwanted cells without causing inflammation. This is in contrast to
necrosis, which is cell death caused by injury and results in a significant inflammatory
response.
Question 5
A client presents with redness, heat, swelling, and pain in their right elbow. These are known as
the cardinal signs of:
A) Chronic inflammation
B) The systemic inflammatory response
C) Acute inflammation
D) The formation of granulation tissue

Correct Answer: C) Acute inflammation
Rationale: The four classic, localized signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor
(heat), tumor (swelling), and dolor (pain). These are caused by the vascular changes of
vasodilation and increased capillary permeability that occur in response to an injury.

Question 6
A client is experiencing an allergic reaction with hives, wheezing, and hypotension after a bee
sting. This is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I (IgE-mediated)
B) Type II (Tissue-specific)
C) Type III (Immune complex-mediated)
D) Type IV (Cell-mediated)

Correct Answer: A) Type I (IgE-mediated)
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is an immediate allergic reaction mediated by the
binding of an antigen (allergen) to IgE antibodies on the surface of mast cells. This triggers
the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing vasodilation, increased
permeability, and bronchoconstriction, which lead to the symptoms of anaphylaxis.

Question 7
The primary cell targeted and destroyed by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is the:

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A) CD4+ T-helper lymphocyte
B) CD8+ T-cytotoxic lymphocyte
C) B lymphocyte
D) Neutrophil
Correct Answer: A) CD4+ T-helper lymphocyte
Rationale: The HIV virus specifically infects CD4+ T-helper cells. These cells are critical
for coordinating the entire adaptive immune response. The progressive destruction of
CD4+ cells leads to a severe immunodeficiency, making the individual susceptible to
opportunistic infections and cancers, which is the definition of AIDS.

Question 8
In a patient with heart failure, congestion in the pulmonary circulation, causing symptoms like
dyspnea and crackles, is a hallmark of:
A) Right-sided heart failure
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) High-output heart failure
D) Diastolic heart failure

Correct Answer: B) Left-sided heart failure
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure is characterized by the inability of the left ventricle to
pump blood effectively to the body. This causes blood to back up into the pulmonary
circulation, increasing pressure in the pulmonary veins and capillaries. This pressure forces
fluid into the lung tissues, causing pulmonary edema and its associated respiratory
symptoms.

Question 9
In a patient with septic shock, the profound vasodilation and hypotension are primarily caused
by:
A) A massive release of inflammatory mediators in response to infection.
B) A decrease in cardiac output due to a myocardial infarction.
C) A loss of blood volume from a severe hemorrhage.
D) A loss of sympathetic nervous system tone.

Correct Answer: A) A massive release of inflammatory mediators in response to infection.
Rationale: Septic shock is a form of distributive shock. A widespread infection triggers a
systemic inflammatory response, leading to the massive release of cytokines and other
mediators. These mediators cause widespread vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability, leading to a dramatic drop in systemic vascular resistance and blood
pressure.

Question 10
The underlying pathophysiologic process in atherosclerosis is:

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A) The formation of a blood clot in a deep vein.
B) The development of fatty plaques within the arterial walls.
C) An autoimmune inflammation of the blood vessels.
D) A weakening and ballooning of the arterial wall.
Correct Answer: B) The development of fatty plaques within the arterial walls.
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory disease characterized by the
accumulation of lipids, cholesterol, and other substances within the intima (inner lining) of
arteries. This buildup forms a plaque that can narrow the artery, restrict blood flow, and
eventually rupture, leading to thrombosis (clot formation).

Question 11
A client is diagnosed with edema. An increase in which pressure would lead to the development
of edema?
A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Capillary oncotic pressure
C) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
D) Interstitial oncotic pressure

Correct Answer: A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Rationale: Edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitial space. Capillary
hydrostatic pressure is the "pushing" force of fluid against the capillary wall. An increase
in this pressure, often due to venous obstruction or fluid overload, pushes more fluid out of
the capillaries and into the tissues than can be returned, causing edema.

Question 12
A patient's lab results show a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the
patient for which of the following manifestations?
A) Thirst and dry mucous membranes
B) Confusion and seizures
C) Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias
D) Numbness and tingling in the extremities

Correct Answer: B) Confusion and seizures
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L is a significant hyponatremia. The low
concentration of sodium in the blood causes water to shift from the extracellular fluid into
the cells to equalize the osmotic pressure. This leads to cerebral edema (swelling of brain
cells), which manifests as neurological symptoms like confusion, lethargy, and in severe
cases, seizures.

Question 13
Tall, peaked T-waves on an electrocardiogram (ECG) are a classic sign of which electrolyte
imbalance?

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NURSING Pathophysiology

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