ESTUDYR
Ati Pharmacology Proctored, Pharmacology Ati Proctored Updated
Exam With Most Tested Questions And Answers | Graded A+ |
Assured Success With Detailed Rationales
A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication
has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer
this medication?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
Rationale: Drugs with very long half-lives stay therapeutic between doses and are often given
once daily.
Which factors should prompt LOWER medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased renal secretion
B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
C. Liver failure
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Concurrent use of a medication metabolized by the same pathway
Rationale: Liver failure reduces metabolism (↑drug levels). Two drugs competing for the same
metabolic pathway can raise concentrations; both require dose reduction.
When preparing to administer eye drops, which actions should the nurse take? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Have the client lie on her side
B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye
D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac
E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation
Rationale: Looking up exposes the conjunctival sac; drops go into sac (not directly on cornea);
blinking/closing gently spreads the medication.
Discharge teaching for transdermal patches — which statement shows understanding?
A. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.”
B. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.”
C. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
D. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.”
Rationale: Apply patches to hairless skin for better absorption; rotating sites is correct but
,ESTUDYR
weekly rotation may be incorrect depending on patch — the hairless site is the key teachable
point.
A new order requests verification of a trough level. What action should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose.
B. Verify the client has been taking the med for 24 hr before sampling.
C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose.
D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 min later.
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn immediately before the next scheduled dose to measure the
lowest drug concentration.
Which actions are legal nursing responsibilities when preparing medications? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Maintain skill competency.
B. Determine the dosage.
C. Monitor for adverse effects.
D. Safeguard medications.
E. Identify the client's diagnosis.
Rationale: Nurses must maintain competencies, monitor effects, and safeguard meds;
diagnosing and independently determining dosage are provider roles (unless within scope and
protocol).
Lisinopril 10 mg PO once every day is which type of prescription?
A. Single
B. Stat
C. Routine
D. Standing
Rationale: Routine (standard) prescriptions are scheduled regularly until discontinued.
Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for Hyperemesis Gravidarum — which part needs clarification?
A. Name
B. Dosage
C. Route
D. Frequency
Rationale: The order must specify timing/frequency (PRN needs parameters: how often,
maximum dose).
Pre-medication assessment should include which data? (Select all that apply.)
A. Use of herbal teas
B. Daily fluid intake
,ESTUDYR
C. Current health status
D. Previous surgical history
E. Food allergies
Rationale: Herbal products can interact with medications, current health status influences med
safety, and allergies are essential to avoid reactions.
When taking a telephone prescription, what is correct procedure?
A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the record.
B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
C. The provider can clarify when he signs the record.
D. Omit the “read back” if it’s a one-time prescription.
Rationale: A second nurse should listen and verify; read-back is required to prevent errors.
IV math — Vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL D5W over 45 min; tubing drop factor 10 gtt/mL. How
many gtt/min? (Round to whole number.)
A. 15 gtt/min
B. 22 gtt/min
C. 30 gtt/min
D. 45 gtt/min
Answer: B. 22 gtt/min
Rationale: (100 mL × 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = ≈ 22.22 → 22 gtt/min.
IV math — Clindamycin 200 mg in 100 mL over 30 min. What mL/hr should the pump be set
to? (Nearest whole number.)
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 150 mL/hr
C. 200 mL/hr
D. 300 mL/hr
Rationale: 100 mL ÷ 30 min = 3.33 mL/min × 60 = 200 mL/hr.
Oral dosing — Furosemide 80 mg PO; available 10 mg/mL solution. How many mL to
administer? (Whole number.)
A. 4 mL
B. 6 mL
C. 8 mL
D. 10 mL
Rationale: 80 mg ÷ (10 mg/mL) = 8 mL.
Tablet dosing — Haloperidol 2 mg PO q12h; available 1 mg tablets. How many tablets per
dose?
, ESTUDYR
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
Rationale: 2 mg ÷ 1 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.
Pediatric dosing — Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided q12h for a 44 lb preschooler;
available 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose? (Whole number.)
A. 2 mL
B. 3 mL
C. 4 mL
D. 5 mL
Rationale: 44 lb ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg → 20 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 400 mg/day → divided q12h = 200
mg/dose → (200 mg / 250 mg) × 5 mL = 4 mL.
Heparin subcut 15,000 units q12h; available 20,000 units/mL. How many mL per dose?
(Round to nearest tenth.)
A. 0.5 mL
B. 0.7 mL
C. 0.8 mL
D. 1.0 mL
Rationale: 15,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.75 mL → rounded to 0.8 mL.
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO; available 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose? (Round to
nearest tenth.)
A. 5.0 mL
B. 6.0 mL
C. 6.5 mL
D. 7.5 mL
Rationale: (650/500) × 5 = 6.5 mL.
IV infusion — D5W 750 mL over 6 hr. Set the pump to how many mL/hr? (Whole number.)
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 125 mL/hr
C. 150 mL/hr
D. 200 mL/hr
Rationale: 750 mL ÷ 6 hr = 125 mL/hr.
Which findings indicate phlebitis at an IV site? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pallor
Ati Pharmacology Proctored, Pharmacology Ati Proctored Updated
Exam With Most Tested Questions And Answers | Graded A+ |
Assured Success With Detailed Rationales
A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication
has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer
this medication?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
Rationale: Drugs with very long half-lives stay therapeutic between doses and are often given
once daily.
Which factors should prompt LOWER medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased renal secretion
B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
C. Liver failure
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Concurrent use of a medication metabolized by the same pathway
Rationale: Liver failure reduces metabolism (↑drug levels). Two drugs competing for the same
metabolic pathway can raise concentrations; both require dose reduction.
When preparing to administer eye drops, which actions should the nurse take? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Have the client lie on her side
B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye
D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac
E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation
Rationale: Looking up exposes the conjunctival sac; drops go into sac (not directly on cornea);
blinking/closing gently spreads the medication.
Discharge teaching for transdermal patches — which statement shows understanding?
A. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.”
B. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.”
C. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
D. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.”
Rationale: Apply patches to hairless skin for better absorption; rotating sites is correct but
,ESTUDYR
weekly rotation may be incorrect depending on patch — the hairless site is the key teachable
point.
A new order requests verification of a trough level. What action should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose.
B. Verify the client has been taking the med for 24 hr before sampling.
C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose.
D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 min later.
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn immediately before the next scheduled dose to measure the
lowest drug concentration.
Which actions are legal nursing responsibilities when preparing medications? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Maintain skill competency.
B. Determine the dosage.
C. Monitor for adverse effects.
D. Safeguard medications.
E. Identify the client's diagnosis.
Rationale: Nurses must maintain competencies, monitor effects, and safeguard meds;
diagnosing and independently determining dosage are provider roles (unless within scope and
protocol).
Lisinopril 10 mg PO once every day is which type of prescription?
A. Single
B. Stat
C. Routine
D. Standing
Rationale: Routine (standard) prescriptions are scheduled regularly until discontinued.
Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for Hyperemesis Gravidarum — which part needs clarification?
A. Name
B. Dosage
C. Route
D. Frequency
Rationale: The order must specify timing/frequency (PRN needs parameters: how often,
maximum dose).
Pre-medication assessment should include which data? (Select all that apply.)
A. Use of herbal teas
B. Daily fluid intake
,ESTUDYR
C. Current health status
D. Previous surgical history
E. Food allergies
Rationale: Herbal products can interact with medications, current health status influences med
safety, and allergies are essential to avoid reactions.
When taking a telephone prescription, what is correct procedure?
A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the record.
B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
C. The provider can clarify when he signs the record.
D. Omit the “read back” if it’s a one-time prescription.
Rationale: A second nurse should listen and verify; read-back is required to prevent errors.
IV math — Vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL D5W over 45 min; tubing drop factor 10 gtt/mL. How
many gtt/min? (Round to whole number.)
A. 15 gtt/min
B. 22 gtt/min
C. 30 gtt/min
D. 45 gtt/min
Answer: B. 22 gtt/min
Rationale: (100 mL × 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = ≈ 22.22 → 22 gtt/min.
IV math — Clindamycin 200 mg in 100 mL over 30 min. What mL/hr should the pump be set
to? (Nearest whole number.)
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 150 mL/hr
C. 200 mL/hr
D. 300 mL/hr
Rationale: 100 mL ÷ 30 min = 3.33 mL/min × 60 = 200 mL/hr.
Oral dosing — Furosemide 80 mg PO; available 10 mg/mL solution. How many mL to
administer? (Whole number.)
A. 4 mL
B. 6 mL
C. 8 mL
D. 10 mL
Rationale: 80 mg ÷ (10 mg/mL) = 8 mL.
Tablet dosing — Haloperidol 2 mg PO q12h; available 1 mg tablets. How many tablets per
dose?
, ESTUDYR
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
Rationale: 2 mg ÷ 1 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.
Pediatric dosing — Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided q12h for a 44 lb preschooler;
available 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose? (Whole number.)
A. 2 mL
B. 3 mL
C. 4 mL
D. 5 mL
Rationale: 44 lb ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg → 20 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 400 mg/day → divided q12h = 200
mg/dose → (200 mg / 250 mg) × 5 mL = 4 mL.
Heparin subcut 15,000 units q12h; available 20,000 units/mL. How many mL per dose?
(Round to nearest tenth.)
A. 0.5 mL
B. 0.7 mL
C. 0.8 mL
D. 1.0 mL
Rationale: 15,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.75 mL → rounded to 0.8 mL.
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO; available 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose? (Round to
nearest tenth.)
A. 5.0 mL
B. 6.0 mL
C. 6.5 mL
D. 7.5 mL
Rationale: (650/500) × 5 = 6.5 mL.
IV infusion — D5W 750 mL over 6 hr. Set the pump to how many mL/hr? (Whole number.)
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 125 mL/hr
C. 150 mL/hr
D. 200 mL/hr
Rationale: 750 mL ÷ 6 hr = 125 mL/hr.
Which findings indicate phlebitis at an IV site? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pallor
