ESTUDYR
ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED REVIEW UPDATED EXAM WITH
MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | ASSURED
SUCCESS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
Which of the following is an acceptable patient identifier before medication administration?
A. Room number
B. Home telephone number
C. Date of birth only if ID band is missing
D. Admission time
Rationale: Patient identifiers include name, medical record number, and telephone/home
number—room can change.
A urinalysis revealing hematuria, proteinuria, and altered specific gravity most directly
indicates dysfunction of which organ?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Spleen
Rationale: These findings indicate renal pathology affecting filtration and concentration.
Serum creatinine rising 1–2 mg/dL every 24–48 hours is most consistent with:
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Acute renal failure
C. Dehydration only
D. Hepatic failure
Rationale: Rapid increases over days suggest ARF; chronic rises occur over months/years.
A BUN of 80–100 mg/dL within 1 week is most likely seen with:
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Acute renal failure
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Normovolemia
Rationale: Markedly elevated BUN over short period indicates acute renal dysfunction.
In chronic renal failure (CRF), you expect which pattern of electrolytes?
A. ↑ Na, ↑ Ca, ↓ K
B. ↓ Na (dilutional), ↓ Ca, ↑ K, ↑ Phosphorus
C. ↑ Na, ↑ Ca, ↓ Phosphorus
D. ↓ K, ↑ Na, ↑ Ca
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: CRF causes hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia (and dilutional
hyponatremia).
For a patient on furosemide (Lasix), which food should be increased?
A. Dairy
B. Bananas and orange juice (potassium-rich foods)
C. Red meat
D. Leafy greens only
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia; encourage potassium-rich foods.
A patient reports IV site skin color change and cooler temperature with discomfort — your
first action is:
A. Increase infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess site
C. Document and leave as is
D. Warm compress immediately without stopping infusion
Rationale: Any IV site complication requires stopping infusion and assessment first.
Chest pressure, slow/difficult speech, and throat/jaw tightness are potential adverse effects
of:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Sumatriptan (migraine med)
C. Lisinopril
D. Metformin
Rationale: Sumatriptan can cause chest tightness/pressure and atypical symptoms.
Best practice for nitroglycerin transdermal patch:
A. Cut patch to fit area
B. Wear continuously without break
C. Apply at night only
D. Apply in morning, remove at night for 10–14-hr patch-free period
Rationale: Patch-free interval prevents tolerance; do not cut patch.
What is the appropriate route for filgrastim (Neupogen)?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous injection or IV infusion
C. IM only
D. Topical
Rationale: Filgrastim is given SC or IV to stimulate neutrophil production.
, ESTUDYR
Lisinopril's primary therapeutic effect shown as a typical BP reading would be:
A. 90/60
B. 150/90
C. 120/80
D. 200/110
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower BP toward normal ranges such as ~120/80.
Which antipsychotic is risperidone (Risperdal)?
A. Typical antipsychotic
B. Atypical antipsychotic
C. Mood stabilizer only
D. Anti-anxiety agent
Rationale: Risperidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic.
Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) is primarily used to:
A. Treat MRSA
B. Prevent or treat urinary tract infections
C. Treat viral infections
D. Lower cholesterol
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is targeted to urinary pathogens.
Which antibiotic is notably nephrotoxic and used in some radiology procedures?
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalexin
C. Gentamicin (Garamycin)
D. Azithromycin
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are nephrotoxic and used IV in some contexts.
Common early signs of digoxin toxicity include:
A. Hypertension and hyperactivity
B. Fatigue, bradycardia, anorexia, nausea/vomiting
C. Cough and sneezing
D. Tremor only
Rationale: GI and cardiac manifestations are early signs.
Which medication is used before exercise to prevent bronchospasm?
A. Montelukast
B. Prednisone
C. Albuterol (or cromolyn); Singulair is leukotriene modifier
D. Ipratropium
ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED REVIEW UPDATED EXAM WITH
MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | ASSURED
SUCCESS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
Which of the following is an acceptable patient identifier before medication administration?
A. Room number
B. Home telephone number
C. Date of birth only if ID band is missing
D. Admission time
Rationale: Patient identifiers include name, medical record number, and telephone/home
number—room can change.
A urinalysis revealing hematuria, proteinuria, and altered specific gravity most directly
indicates dysfunction of which organ?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Spleen
Rationale: These findings indicate renal pathology affecting filtration and concentration.
Serum creatinine rising 1–2 mg/dL every 24–48 hours is most consistent with:
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Acute renal failure
C. Dehydration only
D. Hepatic failure
Rationale: Rapid increases over days suggest ARF; chronic rises occur over months/years.
A BUN of 80–100 mg/dL within 1 week is most likely seen with:
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Acute renal failure
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Normovolemia
Rationale: Markedly elevated BUN over short period indicates acute renal dysfunction.
In chronic renal failure (CRF), you expect which pattern of electrolytes?
A. ↑ Na, ↑ Ca, ↓ K
B. ↓ Na (dilutional), ↓ Ca, ↑ K, ↑ Phosphorus
C. ↑ Na, ↑ Ca, ↓ Phosphorus
D. ↓ K, ↑ Na, ↑ Ca
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: CRF causes hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia (and dilutional
hyponatremia).
For a patient on furosemide (Lasix), which food should be increased?
A. Dairy
B. Bananas and orange juice (potassium-rich foods)
C. Red meat
D. Leafy greens only
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia; encourage potassium-rich foods.
A patient reports IV site skin color change and cooler temperature with discomfort — your
first action is:
A. Increase infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess site
C. Document and leave as is
D. Warm compress immediately without stopping infusion
Rationale: Any IV site complication requires stopping infusion and assessment first.
Chest pressure, slow/difficult speech, and throat/jaw tightness are potential adverse effects
of:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Sumatriptan (migraine med)
C. Lisinopril
D. Metformin
Rationale: Sumatriptan can cause chest tightness/pressure and atypical symptoms.
Best practice for nitroglycerin transdermal patch:
A. Cut patch to fit area
B. Wear continuously without break
C. Apply at night only
D. Apply in morning, remove at night for 10–14-hr patch-free period
Rationale: Patch-free interval prevents tolerance; do not cut patch.
What is the appropriate route for filgrastim (Neupogen)?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous injection or IV infusion
C. IM only
D. Topical
Rationale: Filgrastim is given SC or IV to stimulate neutrophil production.
, ESTUDYR
Lisinopril's primary therapeutic effect shown as a typical BP reading would be:
A. 90/60
B. 150/90
C. 120/80
D. 200/110
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower BP toward normal ranges such as ~120/80.
Which antipsychotic is risperidone (Risperdal)?
A. Typical antipsychotic
B. Atypical antipsychotic
C. Mood stabilizer only
D. Anti-anxiety agent
Rationale: Risperidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic.
Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) is primarily used to:
A. Treat MRSA
B. Prevent or treat urinary tract infections
C. Treat viral infections
D. Lower cholesterol
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is targeted to urinary pathogens.
Which antibiotic is notably nephrotoxic and used in some radiology procedures?
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalexin
C. Gentamicin (Garamycin)
D. Azithromycin
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are nephrotoxic and used IV in some contexts.
Common early signs of digoxin toxicity include:
A. Hypertension and hyperactivity
B. Fatigue, bradycardia, anorexia, nausea/vomiting
C. Cough and sneezing
D. Tremor only
Rationale: GI and cardiac manifestations are early signs.
Which medication is used before exercise to prevent bronchospasm?
A. Montelukast
B. Prednisone
C. Albuterol (or cromolyn); Singulair is leukotriene modifier
D. Ipratropium
