NR302 Health Assessment I Exam 1 Practice
2025/2026 - 100% Correct Questions &
Verified Answers for Chamberlain University
1. When measuring an adult’s blood pressure with a manual cuff, which action
ensures the most accurate reading?
A) Support the arm above heart level while inflating the cuff
B) Select a cuff whose bladder width is 40% of the arm circumference
C) Deflate the cuff at a rate of 10 mmHg per second
D) Inflate the cuff to 20 mmHg above the palpated systolic pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Proper cuff size (bladder width ≈40% of arm circumference) is critical
for accuracy; an incorrect size yields false high or low readings. The arm must be
at heart level (A), deflate rate should be 2-3 mmHg/s (C), and inflation should be
30 mmHg above palpated systolic (D).
2. Which site is generally preferred for routine temperature measurement in an alert
adult?
A) Axilla
B) Tympanic membrane
C) Oral
D) Rectal
Answer: C
Rationale: Oral temperature is convenient, accurate, and comfortable for alert
adults. Axilla (A) is safe but less precise; tympanic (B) requires proper technique;
rectal (D) is invasive and reserved for specific situations.
3. You count a client’s radial pulse for 30 seconds and obtain 36 beats. Which pulse
rate should you document?
A) 36 beats/min
B) 72 beats/min
C) 96 beats/min
D) 144 beats/min
Answer: B
, Rationale: Multiply 30-second counts by 2: 36 × 2 = 72 beats/min. A 60-second
count is used for irregular rhythms, but multiplication is acceptable for regular
pulses.
4. During respiration assessment, which method prevents the client from
consciously altering respiratory rate?
A) Ask the client to breathe normally while watching the chest
B) Tell the client you are taking their pulse while observing chest rise
C) Place your hand on the client’s abdomen and count aloud
D) Auscultate lung bases and count breaths
Answer: B
Rationale: Disguising respiration assessment while appearing to take the pulse
minimizes client awareness and produces a more accurate rate. Observing
openly (A) or counting aloud (C) can alter breathing.
5. Which pain scale is most appropriate for an adult who is cognitively intact and
speaks English?
A) Wong-Baker FACES
B) Numeric Rating Scale 0–10
C) FLACC scale
D) CRIES scale
Answer: B
Rationale: The 0–10 Numeric Rating Scale is quick, reliable, and appropriate for
cognitively intact adults. FACES (A) is useful for children or language barriers;
FLACC (C) and CRIES (D) are for pre-verbal children.
6. While inspecting the skin, you note diffuse, bilateral, 1-cm, flat, non-blanchable
red spots on the lower legs. These are best described as:
A) Petechiae
B) Purpura
C) Macules
D) Papules
Answer: C
Rationale: Flat, circumscribed color changes <1 cm are macules. Petechiae (A)
and purpura (B) are non-blanchable but smaller/larger respectively; papules (D)
are palpable.
7. Which equipment is essential to perform the Romberg test?
A) Reflex hammer
B) Tuning fork
C) Tongue blade
D) None—only observation is needed
Answer: D
, Rationale: The Romberg test assesses balance by having the client stand eyes
open then closed; no equipment is required. A tuning fork (B) tests vibration
sense.
8. When palpating lymph nodes, which technique is correct?
A) Use deep pressure and circular motions
B) Palpate with the finger pads in a slow, gentle, circular fashion
C) Push the node against bone and compress firmly
D) Use the ulnar side of the hand
Answer: B
Rationale: Gentle, circular motions with finger pads detect size, texture, and
tenderness without causing discomfort. Deep pressure (A, C) can obscure small
nodes or cause pain.
9. Which cranial nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the client to follow a finger
upward, downward, and side-to-side?
A) CN II (Optic)
B) CN III (Oculomotor)
C) CN IV (Trochlear)
D) CN VI (Abducens)
Answer: B
Rationale: Extra-ocular movements test CN III (oculomotor), with CN IV and VI
assisting. CN II (A) is visual acuity.
10. The nurse tests visual acuity and documents 20/40. Which interpretation is
correct?
A) Client sees at 20 ft what a person with normal vision sees at 40 ft
B) Client has normal vision
C) Client sees at 40 ft what a normal eye sees at 20 ft
D) Client is legally blind
Answer: A
Rationale: 20/40 means the client sees at 20 ft what should be seen at 40
ft—vision is reduced. Normal vision is 20/20 (B).
11. When inspecting the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, the nurse gently
pulls the adult pinna:
A) Down and back
B) Up and back
C) Up and forward
D) Straight out
Answer: B
Rationale: Up and back straightens the ear canal in adults. Down and back (A) is
used for infants <12 months.
2025/2026 - 100% Correct Questions &
Verified Answers for Chamberlain University
1. When measuring an adult’s blood pressure with a manual cuff, which action
ensures the most accurate reading?
A) Support the arm above heart level while inflating the cuff
B) Select a cuff whose bladder width is 40% of the arm circumference
C) Deflate the cuff at a rate of 10 mmHg per second
D) Inflate the cuff to 20 mmHg above the palpated systolic pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Proper cuff size (bladder width ≈40% of arm circumference) is critical
for accuracy; an incorrect size yields false high or low readings. The arm must be
at heart level (A), deflate rate should be 2-3 mmHg/s (C), and inflation should be
30 mmHg above palpated systolic (D).
2. Which site is generally preferred for routine temperature measurement in an alert
adult?
A) Axilla
B) Tympanic membrane
C) Oral
D) Rectal
Answer: C
Rationale: Oral temperature is convenient, accurate, and comfortable for alert
adults. Axilla (A) is safe but less precise; tympanic (B) requires proper technique;
rectal (D) is invasive and reserved for specific situations.
3. You count a client’s radial pulse for 30 seconds and obtain 36 beats. Which pulse
rate should you document?
A) 36 beats/min
B) 72 beats/min
C) 96 beats/min
D) 144 beats/min
Answer: B
, Rationale: Multiply 30-second counts by 2: 36 × 2 = 72 beats/min. A 60-second
count is used for irregular rhythms, but multiplication is acceptable for regular
pulses.
4. During respiration assessment, which method prevents the client from
consciously altering respiratory rate?
A) Ask the client to breathe normally while watching the chest
B) Tell the client you are taking their pulse while observing chest rise
C) Place your hand on the client’s abdomen and count aloud
D) Auscultate lung bases and count breaths
Answer: B
Rationale: Disguising respiration assessment while appearing to take the pulse
minimizes client awareness and produces a more accurate rate. Observing
openly (A) or counting aloud (C) can alter breathing.
5. Which pain scale is most appropriate for an adult who is cognitively intact and
speaks English?
A) Wong-Baker FACES
B) Numeric Rating Scale 0–10
C) FLACC scale
D) CRIES scale
Answer: B
Rationale: The 0–10 Numeric Rating Scale is quick, reliable, and appropriate for
cognitively intact adults. FACES (A) is useful for children or language barriers;
FLACC (C) and CRIES (D) are for pre-verbal children.
6. While inspecting the skin, you note diffuse, bilateral, 1-cm, flat, non-blanchable
red spots on the lower legs. These are best described as:
A) Petechiae
B) Purpura
C) Macules
D) Papules
Answer: C
Rationale: Flat, circumscribed color changes <1 cm are macules. Petechiae (A)
and purpura (B) are non-blanchable but smaller/larger respectively; papules (D)
are palpable.
7. Which equipment is essential to perform the Romberg test?
A) Reflex hammer
B) Tuning fork
C) Tongue blade
D) None—only observation is needed
Answer: D
, Rationale: The Romberg test assesses balance by having the client stand eyes
open then closed; no equipment is required. A tuning fork (B) tests vibration
sense.
8. When palpating lymph nodes, which technique is correct?
A) Use deep pressure and circular motions
B) Palpate with the finger pads in a slow, gentle, circular fashion
C) Push the node against bone and compress firmly
D) Use the ulnar side of the hand
Answer: B
Rationale: Gentle, circular motions with finger pads detect size, texture, and
tenderness without causing discomfort. Deep pressure (A, C) can obscure small
nodes or cause pain.
9. Which cranial nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the client to follow a finger
upward, downward, and side-to-side?
A) CN II (Optic)
B) CN III (Oculomotor)
C) CN IV (Trochlear)
D) CN VI (Abducens)
Answer: B
Rationale: Extra-ocular movements test CN III (oculomotor), with CN IV and VI
assisting. CN II (A) is visual acuity.
10. The nurse tests visual acuity and documents 20/40. Which interpretation is
correct?
A) Client sees at 20 ft what a person with normal vision sees at 40 ft
B) Client has normal vision
C) Client sees at 40 ft what a normal eye sees at 20 ft
D) Client is legally blind
Answer: A
Rationale: 20/40 means the client sees at 20 ft what should be seen at 40
ft—vision is reduced. Normal vision is 20/20 (B).
11. When inspecting the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, the nurse gently
pulls the adult pinna:
A) Down and back
B) Up and back
C) Up and forward
D) Straight out
Answer: B
Rationale: Up and back straightens the ear canal in adults. Down and back (A) is
used for infants <12 months.
