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WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA Exam 2025–2026 | 450+ Verified Questions & Answers

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The WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA Exam Test Bank (Newest 2025–2026) provides 450+ actual exam questions with correct, detailed, verified answers already graded A+. This comprehensive resource strengthens pathophysiology understanding, clinical reasoning, and exam readiness. Ideal for WGU nursing and health science students seeking reliable, up-to-date practice materials to improve performance and prepare confidently for the D115 OA exam.

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WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA
Course
WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA

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WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA EXAM
TEST BANK NEWEST 2025/2026 TESTING ACTUAL EXAM
WITH 450+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ /


What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?

B) Sudden increase of LH.

Ovulation generally occurs 1-2 hours before the final progesterone surge, or about
12-36 hours after the onset of the FSH and LH surge.




Which is a symptom of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

B) Hyponatremia
A low sodium level or hyponatremia is a major complication of SIADH and is
responsible for many of the symptoms of SIADH.




What type of ovarian cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no
dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process?
D) Benign ovarian

,Benign ovarian, or functional cysts, are variations of normal physiologic events.
Benign cysts of the ovary are produced when a follicle is stimulated but does not
complete the maturity process.




An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for a patient who
experienced a 20% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. Current assessment
findings include massive evaporative water losses, a flux of large amounts of fluid and
electrolytes in the tissues, generalized edema, and circulatory hypovolemia.
The APRN needs to take immediate action to prevent irreversible hypovolemic shock
and death.
Which priority action should be taken by the APRN?

D) Administer up to 30 L of lactated ringer solution over 24 hours




The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a
"hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
D) Peritonsillar abscess

Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.




What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?

A) maternal age

,The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over
the age of 35




In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome
affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one
copy of the X chromosome in each cell.




The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect
which of the following genetic conditions?
B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-
like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features,
small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth
weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.




When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:

A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by
T cells and B cells.

, There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune
response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response,
which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.




A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands
and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
minimally conscious state




Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.




Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?

C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.

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Course
WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA

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