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ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM A 2025 LATEST UPDATED COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED GET IT CORRECT!!

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ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM A 2025 LATEST UPDATED COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED GET IT CORRECT!!

Instelling
ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE
Vak
ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM A 2025 LATEST
UPDATED COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
GET IT CORRECT!!

Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed continuous oxygen therapy via nasal cannula.
Which finding indicates effective oxygen therapy?
A) Respiratory rate of 28/min.
B) Increased confusion.
C) Oxygen saturation of 95% on room air.
D) Pallor.
E) Cyanosis of the nail beds.
Correct Answer: C) Oxygen saturation of 95% on room air.
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 95% on room air indicates adequate oxygenation and is
within the expected normal range for most clients, suggesting the therapy is effective.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine (Lantus) to a client with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?
A) Administer the insulin 30 minutes before a meal.
B) Mix the insulin with regular insulin in the same syringe.
C) Do not mix glargine insulin with any other insulin.
D) Expect a peak effect 2 to 4 hours after administration.
E) Administer intravenously for rapid effect.
Correct Answer: C) Do not mix glargine insulin with any other insulin.
Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin that must never be mixed with
any other insulin product to maintain its extended duration of action.

Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the
following items should the nurse offer the client?
A) Cream of mushroom soup.
B) Orange juice with pulp.
C) Applesauce.
D) Gelatin.
E) Milk.
Correct Answer: D) Gelatin.
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes foods that are transparent and liquid at room
temperature, such as broth, gelatin, plain tea, and clear juices without pulp.

Question 4
A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who reports abdominal pain. Which of
the following actions should the nurse perform first?
A) Palpation of the abdomen.

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B) Percussion of the abdomen.
C) Inspection of the abdomen.
D) Auscultation of bowel sounds.
E) Deep palpation over the painful area.
Correct Answer: C) Inspection of the abdomen.
Rationale: The correct order for an abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation,
percussion, and then palpation. Inspection is always the first step in any physical
assessment.

Question 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing a pressure injury. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
A) Massage reddened areas vigorously.
B) Position the client in a side-lying position with the trochanter supported directly.
C) Use a donut-shaped cushion when the client is seated.
D) Reposition the client every 2 hours.
E) Keep the client in a semi-Fowler's position continuously.
Correct Answer: D) Reposition the client every 2 hours.
Rationale: Frequent repositioning (at least every 2 hours for bed-bound clients) is essential
to relieve pressure on bony prominences and prevent ischemia that leads to pressure injury.

Question 6
A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to an adult client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A) Instruct the client to lie on their right side.
B) Insert the suppository approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm) into the rectum.
C) Lubricate the suppository with water-soluble lubricant.
D) Ask the client to expel the suppository immediately after insertion.
E) Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
Correct Answer: C) Lubricate the suppository with water-soluble lubricant.
Rationale: Lubricating the suppository and the nurse's gloved finger reduces friction and
facilitates easier, more comfortable insertion.

Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for continuous enteral feedings via a
nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent
aspiration?
A) Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
B) Administer the feeding formula at a rapid rate.
C) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees.
D) Administer cold formula directly from the refrigerator.
E) Flush the NG tube with water every 8 hours.

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Correct Answer: C) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed during and for at least 30-60 minutes after enteral
feedings helps to prevent gastric reflux and significantly reduces the risk of aspiration.

Question 8
A nurse is performing wound care for a client. The nurse notes yellow, stringy exudate covering
approximately 50% of the wound bed. The nurse should document this as:
A) Granulation tissue.
B) Eschar.
C) Epithelial tissue.
D) Slough.
E) Serous drainage.
Correct Answer: D) Slough.
Rationale: Slough is characterized by yellow, tan, gray, green, or brown necrotic tissue that
is often soft, moist, and stringy, and must be removed for wound healing.

Question 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for an inhaled
corticosteroid for asthma. Which instruction is essential?
A) "Use this inhaler for sudden shortness of breath."
B) "Stop taking this medication once your breathing improves."
C) "Rinse your mouth with water after each use."
D) "It is normal to experience immediate relief after using this inhaler."
E) "Increase the dose if you have an asthma attack."
Correct Answer: C) "Rinse your mouth with water after each use."
Rationale: Rinsing the mouth with water after using an inhaled corticosteroid helps prevent
oral candidiasis (thrush), a common side effect, and reduces systemic absorption of the
medication.
Question 10
A nurse is assessing a client's deep tendon reflexes (DTRs). Which finding would the nurse
document as normal?
A) 0 (absent reflex).
B) 1+ (diminished reflex).
C) 2+ (average/normal reflex).
D) 3+ (brisker than average).
E) 4+ (hyperactive reflex with clonus).
Correct Answer: C) 2+ (average/normal reflex).
Rationale: On a 0 to 4+ scale, a 2+ reflex is considered average or normal.

Question 11
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult client. Which

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action is appropriate?
A) Using a 25-gauge needle.
B) Injecting at a 45-degree angle.
C) Selecting the ventrogluteal site for volumes up to 3 mL.
D) Avoiding aspiration of the syringe plunger.
E) Massaging the injection site vigorously afterward.
Correct Answer: C) Selecting the ventrogluteal site for volumes up to 3 mL.
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is a preferred IM injection site for adults due to its large
muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels, allowing for volumes up to
3 mL.

Question 12
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypokalemia. Which of the following EKG
changes should the nurse anticipate?
A) Tall, peaked T waves.
B) Shortened QT interval.
C) Flattened T waves and prominent U waves.
D) Widened QRS complex.
E) ST elevation.
Correct Answer: C) Flattened T waves and prominent U waves.
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) is associated with characteristic EKG changes
including flattened or inverted T waves, and the appearance of prominent U waves.
Question 13
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for an adult female client. Which
action is essential for maintaining sterility?
A) Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic wipes only once.
B) Using sterile gloves and a sterile catheterization kit.
C) Inserting the catheter without lubricant.
D) Allowing the catheter tip to touch the bed linens briefly.
E) Performing the procedure without a mask.
Correct Answer: B) Using sterile gloves and a sterile catheterization kit.
Rationale: Urinary catheterization is a sterile procedure, and strict adherence to sterile
technique with sterile supplies is critical to prevent urinary tract infections.

Question 14
A nurse is caring for a client who has a "do not resuscitate" (DNR) order. Which ethical principle
is primarily being upheld by respecting this order?
A) Beneficence
B) Nonmaleficence
C) Justice
D) Fidelity

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