NURS 5334 EXAM 2 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% RATED
CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT
CORRECT!!!
Question 1
Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use for Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Hypertension
C) Severe Bradycardia
D) Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI) without heart failure
E) Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B) Hypertension
Rationale: ARBs are commonly used to treat hypertension (HTN) by blocking the action of
angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure. They are also indicated for
heart failure, myocardial infarction, and diabetic/non-diabetic nephropathy, and for preventing
CV events in high-risk patients.
Question 2
A significant side effect associated with Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) that requires
careful monitoring, especially in pregnant patients, is:
A) Reflex tachycardia
B) Fetal injury
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypernatremia
E) Acute liver failure
Correct Answer: B) Fetal injury
Rationale: ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy due to the significant risk of fetal injury,
including renal failure, oligohydramnios, and skeletal malformations. Other important side
effects include first-dose hypotension, angioedema (less common than ACE inhibitors),
hyperkalemia, renal failure, and neutropenia.
Question 3
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs)
that is less common compared to ACE inhibitors but still requires attention?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Angioedema
C) Acute liver failure
D) Hypernatremia
E) Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B) Angioedema
Rationale: While angioedema is less frequent with ARBs than with ACE inhibitors, it remains a
serious potential adverse effect, requiring immediate medical attention if it occurs. ARBs
generally have a lower risk of cough than ACE inhibitors.
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Question 4
Which medication is classified as a Direct Renin Inhibitor (DRI)?
A) Valsartan
B) Captopril
C) Aliskiren
D) Amlodipine
E) Metoprolol
Correct Answer: C) Aliskiren
Rationale: Aliskiren is the primary direct renin inhibitor available. It directly inhibits renin,
preventing the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, thereby impacting the entire
RAAS cascade. Its side effects are similar to those of ACE inhibitors and ARBs.
Question 5
Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRIs) share similar side effects with ACE inhibitors and ARBs,
including:
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Increased risk of cough
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Tinnitus
E) Weight gain
Correct Answer: C) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Like ACE inhibitors and ARBs, direct renin inhibitors (such as Aliskiren) can cause
hyperkalemia by interfering with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Other shared side
effects include fetal injury and hypotension.
Question 6
The primary function of Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) is to:
A) Increase calcium entry into cells to strengthen contractions.
B) Decrease calcium inside the cell, causing vasodilation.
C) Directly activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
D) Block beta-adrenergic receptors.
E) Increase heart rate and contractility.
Correct Answer: B) Decrease calcium inside the cell, causing vasodilation.
Rationale: Calcium Channel Blockers work by blocking the influx of calcium ions into vascular
smooth muscle and myocardial cells. This leads to decreased intracellular calcium, resulting in
vasodilation (especially in arteries and arterioles) and reduced myocardial contractility,
ultimately lowering blood pressure and cardiac workload.
Question 7
Which of the following is a Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blocker?
A) Verapamil
B) Diltiazem
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C) Amlodipine
D) Propranolol
E) Atenolol
Correct Answer: C) Amlodipine
Rationale: Amlodipine, Nifedipine, Felodipine, and Nicardipine are examples of
Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers. These agents primarily affect vascular smooth
muscle, leading to vasodilation, with less direct effect on myocardial contractility and heart rate
compared to non-dihydropyridines.
Question 8
Which of the following is a therapeutic use for Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers?
A) Bradycardia
B) Angina
C) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) with reduced ejection fraction
D) Severe hyperkalemia
E) Atrioventricular (AV) block
Correct Answer: B) Angina
Rationale: Dihydropyridine CCBs are widely used for the treatment of angina (especially variant
angina), hypertension, and migraines. They work by causing vasodilation, which reduces
afterload and improves coronary blood flow. Some can also suppress preterm labor.
Question 9
A common side effect associated with Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers is:
A) Bradycardia
B) Constipation
C) Reflex tachycardia
D) Hyperglycemia
E) Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: C) Reflex tachycardia
Rationale: Dihydropyridine CCBs, due to their potent vasodilation, can cause reflex tachycardia
as the body attempts to compensate for the drop in blood pressure. Other side effects include
peripheral edema, flushing, and gingival hyperplasia.
Question 10
Verapamil and Diltiazem are classified as:
A) Beta-adrenergic blockers
B) Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
C) Non-Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers
D) Direct Renin Inhibitors
E) Vasodilators acting directly on arterial smooth muscle
, [Type here]
Correct Answer: C) Non-Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers
Rationale: Verapamil and Diltiazem are non-dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers. They
act on both vascular smooth muscle and the heart, decreasing heart rate, AV conduction, and
force of contraction in addition to causing vasodilation.
Question 11
Which of the following is a primary physiological effect of Verapamil and Diltiazem?
A) Increase heart rate
B) Increase force of contraction
C) Decrease AV conduction
D) Increase arterial pressure
E) Promote sodium and water retention
Correct Answer: C) Decrease AV conduction
Rationale: Verapamil and Diltiazem reduce arterial pressure, increase coronary perfusion, reduce
heart rate, decrease AV conduction, and decrease the force of myocardial contraction. Their
ability to decrease AV conduction makes them useful in treating certain cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 12
Therapeutic uses for Verapamil and Diltiazem include:
A) Hypokalemia and bradycardia
B) Essential hypertension and migraines
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Hyperglycemia
E) Severe peripheral vascular disease without hypertension
Correct Answer: B) Essential hypertension and migraines
Rationale: Verapamil and Diltiazem are used for angina, essential hypertension, cardiac
dysrhythmias (such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal supraventricular
tachycardia), and migraines.
Question 13
A common adverse effect of both Verapamil and Diltiazem is:
A) Tachycardia
B) Dry mouth
C) Constipation
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Tremors
Correct Answer: C) Constipation
Rationale: Common adverse effects of Verapamil and Diltiazem include constipation (especially
with Verapamil), peripheral edema, gingival hyperplasia, and heart block. Their effects on
cardiac conduction can lead to bradycardia or AV block.
CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT
CORRECT!!!
Question 1
Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use for Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Hypertension
C) Severe Bradycardia
D) Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI) without heart failure
E) Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B) Hypertension
Rationale: ARBs are commonly used to treat hypertension (HTN) by blocking the action of
angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure. They are also indicated for
heart failure, myocardial infarction, and diabetic/non-diabetic nephropathy, and for preventing
CV events in high-risk patients.
Question 2
A significant side effect associated with Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) that requires
careful monitoring, especially in pregnant patients, is:
A) Reflex tachycardia
B) Fetal injury
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypernatremia
E) Acute liver failure
Correct Answer: B) Fetal injury
Rationale: ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy due to the significant risk of fetal injury,
including renal failure, oligohydramnios, and skeletal malformations. Other important side
effects include first-dose hypotension, angioedema (less common than ACE inhibitors),
hyperkalemia, renal failure, and neutropenia.
Question 3
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs)
that is less common compared to ACE inhibitors but still requires attention?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Angioedema
C) Acute liver failure
D) Hypernatremia
E) Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B) Angioedema
Rationale: While angioedema is less frequent with ARBs than with ACE inhibitors, it remains a
serious potential adverse effect, requiring immediate medical attention if it occurs. ARBs
generally have a lower risk of cough than ACE inhibitors.
,[Type here]
Question 4
Which medication is classified as a Direct Renin Inhibitor (DRI)?
A) Valsartan
B) Captopril
C) Aliskiren
D) Amlodipine
E) Metoprolol
Correct Answer: C) Aliskiren
Rationale: Aliskiren is the primary direct renin inhibitor available. It directly inhibits renin,
preventing the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, thereby impacting the entire
RAAS cascade. Its side effects are similar to those of ACE inhibitors and ARBs.
Question 5
Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRIs) share similar side effects with ACE inhibitors and ARBs,
including:
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Increased risk of cough
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Tinnitus
E) Weight gain
Correct Answer: C) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Like ACE inhibitors and ARBs, direct renin inhibitors (such as Aliskiren) can cause
hyperkalemia by interfering with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Other shared side
effects include fetal injury and hypotension.
Question 6
The primary function of Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) is to:
A) Increase calcium entry into cells to strengthen contractions.
B) Decrease calcium inside the cell, causing vasodilation.
C) Directly activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
D) Block beta-adrenergic receptors.
E) Increase heart rate and contractility.
Correct Answer: B) Decrease calcium inside the cell, causing vasodilation.
Rationale: Calcium Channel Blockers work by blocking the influx of calcium ions into vascular
smooth muscle and myocardial cells. This leads to decreased intracellular calcium, resulting in
vasodilation (especially in arteries and arterioles) and reduced myocardial contractility,
ultimately lowering blood pressure and cardiac workload.
Question 7
Which of the following is a Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blocker?
A) Verapamil
B) Diltiazem
,[Type here]
C) Amlodipine
D) Propranolol
E) Atenolol
Correct Answer: C) Amlodipine
Rationale: Amlodipine, Nifedipine, Felodipine, and Nicardipine are examples of
Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers. These agents primarily affect vascular smooth
muscle, leading to vasodilation, with less direct effect on myocardial contractility and heart rate
compared to non-dihydropyridines.
Question 8
Which of the following is a therapeutic use for Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers?
A) Bradycardia
B) Angina
C) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) with reduced ejection fraction
D) Severe hyperkalemia
E) Atrioventricular (AV) block
Correct Answer: B) Angina
Rationale: Dihydropyridine CCBs are widely used for the treatment of angina (especially variant
angina), hypertension, and migraines. They work by causing vasodilation, which reduces
afterload and improves coronary blood flow. Some can also suppress preterm labor.
Question 9
A common side effect associated with Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers is:
A) Bradycardia
B) Constipation
C) Reflex tachycardia
D) Hyperglycemia
E) Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: C) Reflex tachycardia
Rationale: Dihydropyridine CCBs, due to their potent vasodilation, can cause reflex tachycardia
as the body attempts to compensate for the drop in blood pressure. Other side effects include
peripheral edema, flushing, and gingival hyperplasia.
Question 10
Verapamil and Diltiazem are classified as:
A) Beta-adrenergic blockers
B) Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
C) Non-Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers
D) Direct Renin Inhibitors
E) Vasodilators acting directly on arterial smooth muscle
, [Type here]
Correct Answer: C) Non-Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers
Rationale: Verapamil and Diltiazem are non-dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers. They
act on both vascular smooth muscle and the heart, decreasing heart rate, AV conduction, and
force of contraction in addition to causing vasodilation.
Question 11
Which of the following is a primary physiological effect of Verapamil and Diltiazem?
A) Increase heart rate
B) Increase force of contraction
C) Decrease AV conduction
D) Increase arterial pressure
E) Promote sodium and water retention
Correct Answer: C) Decrease AV conduction
Rationale: Verapamil and Diltiazem reduce arterial pressure, increase coronary perfusion, reduce
heart rate, decrease AV conduction, and decrease the force of myocardial contraction. Their
ability to decrease AV conduction makes them useful in treating certain cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 12
Therapeutic uses for Verapamil and Diltiazem include:
A) Hypokalemia and bradycardia
B) Essential hypertension and migraines
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Hyperglycemia
E) Severe peripheral vascular disease without hypertension
Correct Answer: B) Essential hypertension and migraines
Rationale: Verapamil and Diltiazem are used for angina, essential hypertension, cardiac
dysrhythmias (such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal supraventricular
tachycardia), and migraines.
Question 13
A common adverse effect of both Verapamil and Diltiazem is:
A) Tachycardia
B) Dry mouth
C) Constipation
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Tremors
Correct Answer: C) Constipation
Rationale: Common adverse effects of Verapamil and Diltiazem include constipation (especially
with Verapamil), peripheral edema, gingival hyperplasia, and heart block. Their effects on
cardiac conduction can lead to bradycardia or AV block.
