hypertension RELIAS EXAM Questions
and Answers Graded A+
All of the following biochemical markers/laboratory tests can have value in
evaluating patients with suspected preeclampsia, but which of these is NOT
included in establishing the actual diagnosis? - Correct answer-put, creat, liver
enzymes.. not uric acid?
According to the recent American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
guidelines, which of the following is a contraindication to expectant management
(for up to 48 hours for full corticosteroid benefit) of preeclampsia with severe
features? - Correct answer-uncontrollable hypertension
Magnesium sulfate is the medication of choice to prevent and treat eclamptic
seizures. Which of the following statements about magnesium sulfate is
accurate?Can only be administered intravenously even if an intravenous line is not
in place.In a patient with recurrent seizures who is currently on magnesium sulfate,
this medication should be immediately abandoned.The typical maintenance dose
for magnesium sulfate is between 4-6 grams/hour.*Magnesium levels may need to
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,be monitored in patients with renal insufficiency. - Correct answer-*Magnesium
levels may need to be monitored in patients with renal insufficiency.$$$$
If a nulligravid patient would like to know her risk of preeclampsia with
pregnancy, which lab tests are most useful in predicting the risk of developing
preeclampsia? - Correct answer-Anticardiolipin antibody
Calcium
Magnesium
Creatinine
*None of the choices
Ms. Lee is a 33-year-old G1P1 who had labor induction for preeclampsia with
severe features, resulting in a vaginal delivery 3 hours ago. She remains on
magnesium sulfate IV. Her BPs have remained in the 150s/90s mm Hg on oral
labetalol, and her lab exams were all within normal limits except creatinine, which
is 1.5mg/dL. She reports that she is short of breath and feels chest heaviness. She
then becomes unresponsive. What are the correct actions at this time? - Correct
answer-Check creatinine immediately
IV labetalol immediately
*Calcium gluconate immediately
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,*Stop magnesium sulfate
A 30-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks is diagnosed with mild gestational hypertension
(blood pressure range 140-150/90-95 mm Hg), and close maternal and fetal
outpatient monitoring is initiated. If the patient presents 1 week later with a
persistent headache but no proteinuria, how would your diagnosis change? -
Correct answer-*Change the diagnosis to severe gestational hypertension.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia with severe features.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia without severe features.
No change in diagnosis
Hematologic abnormalities are common clinical manifestations of preeclampsia
and other hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. Which of the following statements
are accurate? - Correct answer-$.
*Hemolysis can result when red blood cells pass through vasoconstricted
microvasculature and become fragmented.
*Thrombocytopenia can occur from the accelerated use of platelets to form clots in
damaged microvasculature.
Which of the following are considered major risk factors for the development of
preeclampsia?
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, Select 3 answers.
Chronic hypertension
Caucasian race
Cigarette smoking
Multiple gestation
Antiphospholipid syndrome - Correct answer-Chronic htx, smoking, anti
phospholipid
A 40-year-old G1P0 is admitted at 34 weeks' gestation with a diagnosis of
preeclampsia with severe features. The patient's blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg.
Her nurse is starting magnesium sulfate when the provider walks into the room.
The provider requests that the nurse give labetalol 10 mg IV push. Which
communication tool will the nurse use in this situation?SBAR"Stop the Line"
phrase*CUSSValidate and VerifyShout out/call back - Correct answer-SBAR
"Stop the Line" phrase
*CUSS
Validate and Verify
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and Answers Graded A+
All of the following biochemical markers/laboratory tests can have value in
evaluating patients with suspected preeclampsia, but which of these is NOT
included in establishing the actual diagnosis? - Correct answer-put, creat, liver
enzymes.. not uric acid?
According to the recent American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
guidelines, which of the following is a contraindication to expectant management
(for up to 48 hours for full corticosteroid benefit) of preeclampsia with severe
features? - Correct answer-uncontrollable hypertension
Magnesium sulfate is the medication of choice to prevent and treat eclamptic
seizures. Which of the following statements about magnesium sulfate is
accurate?Can only be administered intravenously even if an intravenous line is not
in place.In a patient with recurrent seizures who is currently on magnesium sulfate,
this medication should be immediately abandoned.The typical maintenance dose
for magnesium sulfate is between 4-6 grams/hour.*Magnesium levels may need to
©COPYRIGHT 2025, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 1
,be monitored in patients with renal insufficiency. - Correct answer-*Magnesium
levels may need to be monitored in patients with renal insufficiency.$$$$
If a nulligravid patient would like to know her risk of preeclampsia with
pregnancy, which lab tests are most useful in predicting the risk of developing
preeclampsia? - Correct answer-Anticardiolipin antibody
Calcium
Magnesium
Creatinine
*None of the choices
Ms. Lee is a 33-year-old G1P1 who had labor induction for preeclampsia with
severe features, resulting in a vaginal delivery 3 hours ago. She remains on
magnesium sulfate IV. Her BPs have remained in the 150s/90s mm Hg on oral
labetalol, and her lab exams were all within normal limits except creatinine, which
is 1.5mg/dL. She reports that she is short of breath and feels chest heaviness. She
then becomes unresponsive. What are the correct actions at this time? - Correct
answer-Check creatinine immediately
IV labetalol immediately
*Calcium gluconate immediately
©COPYRIGHT 2025, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 2
,*Stop magnesium sulfate
A 30-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks is diagnosed with mild gestational hypertension
(blood pressure range 140-150/90-95 mm Hg), and close maternal and fetal
outpatient monitoring is initiated. If the patient presents 1 week later with a
persistent headache but no proteinuria, how would your diagnosis change? -
Correct answer-*Change the diagnosis to severe gestational hypertension.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia with severe features.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia without severe features.
No change in diagnosis
Hematologic abnormalities are common clinical manifestations of preeclampsia
and other hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. Which of the following statements
are accurate? - Correct answer-$.
*Hemolysis can result when red blood cells pass through vasoconstricted
microvasculature and become fragmented.
*Thrombocytopenia can occur from the accelerated use of platelets to form clots in
damaged microvasculature.
Which of the following are considered major risk factors for the development of
preeclampsia?
©COPYRIGHT 2025, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 3
, Select 3 answers.
Chronic hypertension
Caucasian race
Cigarette smoking
Multiple gestation
Antiphospholipid syndrome - Correct answer-Chronic htx, smoking, anti
phospholipid
A 40-year-old G1P0 is admitted at 34 weeks' gestation with a diagnosis of
preeclampsia with severe features. The patient's blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg.
Her nurse is starting magnesium sulfate when the provider walks into the room.
The provider requests that the nurse give labetalol 10 mg IV push. Which
communication tool will the nurse use in this situation?SBAR"Stop the Line"
phrase*CUSSValidate and VerifyShout out/call back - Correct answer-SBAR
"Stop the Line" phrase
*CUSS
Validate and Verify
©COPYRIGHT 2025, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 4
