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NR602 Midterm EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% RATED CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT CORRECT!!!

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NR602 Midterm EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% RATED CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT CORRECT!!!

Instelling
NR602
Vak
NR602

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NR602 Midterm EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% RATED
CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT
CORRECT!!!

Question 1
Which of the following would be considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A) Cervical softening (Goodell sign)
B) Bluish coloration of the cervix (Chadwick sign)
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Enlarged uterus
E) Positive ultrasound visualization of fetus

Correct Answer: C) Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Presumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective indicators experienced by the
woman that may suggest pregnancy but can also be caused by other conditions. Nausea and
vomiting, amenorrhea, breast tenderness, fatigue, and urinary frequency are all
presumptive signs.

Question 2
A woman presenting with a positive urine pregnancy test (UPT) and an enlarged uterus would be
displaying which category of pregnancy signs?
A) Presumptive signs
B) Probable signs
C) Positive signs
D) Definitive signs
E) Subjective signs
Correct Answer: B) Probable signs
Rationale: Probable signs of pregnancy are objective indicators that can be observed by an
examiner but can also be caused by conditions other than pregnancy. A positive UPT,
enlarged uterus, Goodell sign (cervical softening), and Chadwick sign (bluish coloration of
the cervix) are probable signs.

Question 3
Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Breast tenderness
C) Goodell sign
D) Fetal heart tones auscultated by a healthcare provider
E) Urinary frequency

Correct Answer: D) Fetal heart tones auscultated by a healthcare provider
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are objective indicators that are directly attributable
to the fetus, unequivocally confirming pregnancy. These include palpation of the fetus by a

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healthcare provider, ultrasound visualization of the fetus, and auscultation of fetal heart
tones by a healthcare provider.

Question 4
Cervical softening that typically occurs around four weeks of pregnancy is known as:
A) Chadwick sign
B) Hegar sign
C) Goodell sign
D) McDonald sign
E) Leopold sign

Correct Answer: C) Goodell sign
Rationale: Goodell sign is the softening of the cervix, which is a probable sign of pregnancy
that occurs around four weeks gestation due to increased vascularity and edema.
Question 5
The bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix observed at 6 to 8 weeks during pregnancy is
termed:
A) Goodell sign
B) Hegar sign
C) Chadwick sign
D) Ballottement
E) Braxton Hicks contractions

Correct Answer: C) Chadwick sign
Rationale: Chadwick sign is the bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix, a probable sign
of pregnancy, caused by increased vascularity in the pelvic area and typically visible at 6 to
8 weeks gestation.

Question 6
At which gestational age would the fundus of the uterus typically be palpable at the level of the
symphysis pubis?
A) 8 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 16 weeks
D) 20 weeks
E) 24 weeks

Correct Answer: B) 12 weeks
Rationale: The fundus reaches the level of the symphysis pubis around 12 weeks of
gestation, making it palpable abdominally.
Question 7
A pregnant patient's fundus is palpated midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.

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Approximately what is her gestational age?
A) 12 weeks
B) 16 weeks
C) 20 weeks
D) 24 weeks
E) 28 weeks

Correct Answer: B) 16 weeks
Rationale: At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus is typically located between the symphysis
pubis and the umbilicus.

Question 8
When a pregnant patient's fundus is palpated at the level of the umbilicus, approximately what is
her gestational age?
A) 12 weeks
B) 16 weeks
C) 20 weeks
D) 24 weeks
E) 28 weeks

Correct Answer: C) 20 weeks
Rationale: The fundus reaches the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks of
gestation.

Question 9
Naegele's Rule is used to calculate an estimated due date. Which of the following correctly
describes the application of this rule?
A) Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtract 3 months, then add 1
year.
B) Subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, then add 1 year.
C) Add 1 year to the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, then subtract 3 months.
D) Subtract 7 days from the first day of the LMP, add 3 months, then add 1 year.
E) Add 3 months to the first day of the LMP, subtract 7 days, then add 1 year.

Correct Answer: B) Subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, then add 1
year.
Rationale: Naegele's Rule is applied by starting on the first day of the last menstrual period
(LMP), subtracting three months, adding seven days, then adding one year.

Question 10
A pregnant patient reports her last menstrual period (LMP) began on July 5, 2021. Using
Naegele's rule, what is her estimated due date?
A) April 12, 2021

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B) March 12, 2022
C) April 12, 2022
D) May 5, 2022
E) February 28, 2022
Correct Answer: C) April 12, 2022
Rationale: Applying Naegele's rule: July 5, 2021 (LMP) - 3 months = April 5, 2021. Then,
add 7 days = April 12, 2021. Finally, add 1 year = April 12, 2022.

Question 11
A breastfed infant should routinely receive supplementation with which vitamin?
A) Vitamin K
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B12
D) Vitamin D
E) Iron

Correct Answer: D) Vitamin D
Rationale: Breastfed babies should receive vitamin D supplementation as breast milk
typically does not provide sufficient amounts to prevent deficiency.

Question 12
Which of the following vaccinations should a pregnant patient avoid due to containing live
virus?
A) Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis (Tdap)
B) Inactivated Influenza
C) Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
D) Hepatitis B
E) Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV23)
Correct Answer: C) Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
Rationale: Live attenuated vaccines, such as MMR and Varicella, are generally
contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal harm. Tdap,
inactivated influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are safe and often recommended.

Question 13
During pregnancy, what is the typical trend for a patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
levels?
A) They typically rise due to increased red blood cell production.
B) They typically fall, leading to physiological anemia.
C) They remain stable throughout pregnancy.
D) They fluctuate unpredictably.
E) They only change if the patient has a pre-existing blood disorder.

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