NURS 306 Quiz 2 OB 2026 [Latest Update] |
WCU | 100% Verified Questions & Answers |
Grade A
Question 1: A nurse is calculating a client's GTPAL. The client is currently pregnant, has had 2
term deliveries, 1 preterm delivery at 32 weeks, 1 miscarriage at 12 weeks, and has 3 living
children. What is the correct GTPAL?
A) G4 T2 P1 A1 L3
B) G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
C) G4 T2 P1 A2 L3
D) G5 T2 P1 A1 L4
Correct Answer: B) G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
Explanation: G=5 (current pregnancy + 4 previous pregnancies), T=2 (term deliveries ≥37 weeks),
P=1 (preterm delivery 20-36 weeks), A=1 (miscarriage <20 weeks), L=3 (living children). The
miscarriage counts in gravity but not in parity.
Question 2: A client at 12 weeks gestation asks when she should start feeling fetal movements.
What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You should feel movements by 14 weeks"
B) "Most women feel movements between 16-20 weeks"
C) "You'll feel movements after 24 weeks"
D) "Movements are typically felt after 28 weeks"
Correct Answer: B) "Most women feel movements between 16-20 weeks"
Explanation: Primigravidas typically feel quickening between 18-20 weeks, while multigravidas may
feel movements as early as 16 weeks due to increased awareness and more relaxed uterine
muscles.
,Question 3: A nurse is assessing fundal height at 20 weeks gestation. Where should the fundus be
located?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) Midway between pubis and umbilicus
C) At the umbilicus
D) 2-3 cm above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: C) At the umbilicus
Explanation: At 20 weeks gestation, the fundus should be at the level of the umbilicus. This
corresponds to the approximate gestational age in weeks, though individual variation may occur.
Question 4: A client asks about the purpose of the glucose screening test. What should the nurse
explain?
A) "It screens for pre-existing diabetes"
B) "It detects gestational diabetes"
C) "It monitors your baby's growth"
D) "It checks for preeclampsia"
Correct Answer: B) "It detects gestational diabetes"
Explanation: The glucose screening test (usually performed at 24-28 weeks) detects gestational
diabetes mellitus, which develops during pregnancy due to hormonal changes affecting insulin
sensitivity.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which food should be
avoided due to risk of listeriosis?
A) Pasteurized milk
B) Soft cheeses like brie
C) Cooked chicken
D) Canned tuna
Correct Answer: B) Soft cheeses like brie
,Explanation: Soft cheeses made from unpasteurized milk (brie, camembert, blue cheese) may
contain Listeria, which can cause listeriosis - a serious infection that can lead to miscarriage,
stillbirth, or preterm labor.
Question 6: A client at 16 weeks gestation reports experiencing occasional sharp, stabbing pains in
her lower abdomen. What should the nurse explain?
A) "These are signs of preterm labor"
B) "These are round ligament pains and are normal"
C) "You should be evaluated for appendicitis"
D) "This indicates a threatened abortion"
Correct Answer: B) "These are round ligament pains and are normal"
Explanation: Round ligament pain is common in the second trimester as the uterus grows and
stretches the round ligaments. The pain is typically sharp, stabbing, and brief, often occurring with
position changes.
Question 7: A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal labs. Which finding requires immediate
follow-up?
A) Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
B) Blood type A positive
C) Rubella titer negative
D) Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Correct Answer: D) Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Explanation: Hepatitis B surface antigen positivity indicates active hepatitis B infection, which
requires immediate follow-up to prevent vertical transmission to the fetus through appropriate
treatment and neonatal prophylaxis.
Question 8: A client asks about safe exercises during pregnancy. Which activity should the nurse
recommend avoiding?
A) Swimming
B) Walking
C) Stationary cycling
D) Contact sports
, Correct Answer: D) Contact sports
Explanation: Contact sports (basketball, soccer, hockey) and activities with high risk of abdominal
trauma should be avoided during pregnancy due to risk of placental abruption and fetal injury.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching about warning signs during pregnancy. Which symptom should
prompt immediate medical attention?
A) Mild nausea in the morning
B) Occasional backache
C) Vaginal bleeding at 18 weeks
D) Increased urinary frequency
Correct Answer: C) Vaginal bleeding at 18 weeks
Explanation: Vaginal bleeding after 12 weeks gestation is abnormal and requires immediate
evaluation as it may indicate placental problems, preterm labor, or other complications that
threaten pregnancy viability.
Question 10: A client at 10 weeks gestation asks about when she should start prenatal vitamins.
What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You should have started before conception"
B) "Start them now and continue throughout pregnancy"
C) "Wait until the second trimester"
D) "They're only needed in the third trimester"
Correct Answer: B) "Start them now and continue throughout pregnancy"
Explanation: Prenatal vitamins should ideally be started before conception but should definitely be
started as soon as pregnancy is confirmed and continued throughout pregnancy and
breastfeeding to ensure adequate nutrient intake.
Question 11: A nurse is explaining the purpose of the first prenatal visit. Which assessment is most
important for establishing baseline data?
A) Pelvic examination
B) Blood pressure measurement
C) Weight assessment
WCU | 100% Verified Questions & Answers |
Grade A
Question 1: A nurse is calculating a client's GTPAL. The client is currently pregnant, has had 2
term deliveries, 1 preterm delivery at 32 weeks, 1 miscarriage at 12 weeks, and has 3 living
children. What is the correct GTPAL?
A) G4 T2 P1 A1 L3
B) G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
C) G4 T2 P1 A2 L3
D) G5 T2 P1 A1 L4
Correct Answer: B) G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
Explanation: G=5 (current pregnancy + 4 previous pregnancies), T=2 (term deliveries ≥37 weeks),
P=1 (preterm delivery 20-36 weeks), A=1 (miscarriage <20 weeks), L=3 (living children). The
miscarriage counts in gravity but not in parity.
Question 2: A client at 12 weeks gestation asks when she should start feeling fetal movements.
What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You should feel movements by 14 weeks"
B) "Most women feel movements between 16-20 weeks"
C) "You'll feel movements after 24 weeks"
D) "Movements are typically felt after 28 weeks"
Correct Answer: B) "Most women feel movements between 16-20 weeks"
Explanation: Primigravidas typically feel quickening between 18-20 weeks, while multigravidas may
feel movements as early as 16 weeks due to increased awareness and more relaxed uterine
muscles.
,Question 3: A nurse is assessing fundal height at 20 weeks gestation. Where should the fundus be
located?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) Midway between pubis and umbilicus
C) At the umbilicus
D) 2-3 cm above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: C) At the umbilicus
Explanation: At 20 weeks gestation, the fundus should be at the level of the umbilicus. This
corresponds to the approximate gestational age in weeks, though individual variation may occur.
Question 4: A client asks about the purpose of the glucose screening test. What should the nurse
explain?
A) "It screens for pre-existing diabetes"
B) "It detects gestational diabetes"
C) "It monitors your baby's growth"
D) "It checks for preeclampsia"
Correct Answer: B) "It detects gestational diabetes"
Explanation: The glucose screening test (usually performed at 24-28 weeks) detects gestational
diabetes mellitus, which develops during pregnancy due to hormonal changes affecting insulin
sensitivity.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which food should be
avoided due to risk of listeriosis?
A) Pasteurized milk
B) Soft cheeses like brie
C) Cooked chicken
D) Canned tuna
Correct Answer: B) Soft cheeses like brie
,Explanation: Soft cheeses made from unpasteurized milk (brie, camembert, blue cheese) may
contain Listeria, which can cause listeriosis - a serious infection that can lead to miscarriage,
stillbirth, or preterm labor.
Question 6: A client at 16 weeks gestation reports experiencing occasional sharp, stabbing pains in
her lower abdomen. What should the nurse explain?
A) "These are signs of preterm labor"
B) "These are round ligament pains and are normal"
C) "You should be evaluated for appendicitis"
D) "This indicates a threatened abortion"
Correct Answer: B) "These are round ligament pains and are normal"
Explanation: Round ligament pain is common in the second trimester as the uterus grows and
stretches the round ligaments. The pain is typically sharp, stabbing, and brief, often occurring with
position changes.
Question 7: A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal labs. Which finding requires immediate
follow-up?
A) Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
B) Blood type A positive
C) Rubella titer negative
D) Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Correct Answer: D) Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Explanation: Hepatitis B surface antigen positivity indicates active hepatitis B infection, which
requires immediate follow-up to prevent vertical transmission to the fetus through appropriate
treatment and neonatal prophylaxis.
Question 8: A client asks about safe exercises during pregnancy. Which activity should the nurse
recommend avoiding?
A) Swimming
B) Walking
C) Stationary cycling
D) Contact sports
, Correct Answer: D) Contact sports
Explanation: Contact sports (basketball, soccer, hockey) and activities with high risk of abdominal
trauma should be avoided during pregnancy due to risk of placental abruption and fetal injury.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching about warning signs during pregnancy. Which symptom should
prompt immediate medical attention?
A) Mild nausea in the morning
B) Occasional backache
C) Vaginal bleeding at 18 weeks
D) Increased urinary frequency
Correct Answer: C) Vaginal bleeding at 18 weeks
Explanation: Vaginal bleeding after 12 weeks gestation is abnormal and requires immediate
evaluation as it may indicate placental problems, preterm labor, or other complications that
threaten pregnancy viability.
Question 10: A client at 10 weeks gestation asks about when she should start prenatal vitamins.
What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You should have started before conception"
B) "Start them now and continue throughout pregnancy"
C) "Wait until the second trimester"
D) "They're only needed in the third trimester"
Correct Answer: B) "Start them now and continue throughout pregnancy"
Explanation: Prenatal vitamins should ideally be started before conception but should definitely be
started as soon as pregnancy is confirmed and continued throughout pregnancy and
breastfeeding to ensure adequate nutrient intake.
Question 11: A nurse is explaining the purpose of the first prenatal visit. Which assessment is most
important for establishing baseline data?
A) Pelvic examination
B) Blood pressure measurement
C) Weight assessment
