PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE HESI EXAM NEWEST COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS(DETAILED
ANSWERS)|ALREADY GRADED A+
Dopamine is administered to a client who is hypotensive. Which finding should the nurse identify as a
therapeutic response?
A. Gain in weight
B. Increase in urine output
C. Improved gastric motility
D. Decrease in blood pressure - CORRECT ANSWERS-B. Increase in urine output
Intropin activates dopamine receptors in the kidney and dilates blood vessels to improve renal perfusion,
so an increase in urine output indicates an increase in glomerular filtration caused by increased arterial
blood pressure. Option A is related to fluid retention but is not an indicator of a therapeutic response to
dopamine therapy. Option C is not related to the vasopressor effect of dopamine therapy. Dopamine
increases cardiac output, which increases a client's blood pressure, not option D.
A client receives pancuronium, a long-acting, nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker, during surgical
anesthesia. Which client situation should alert the nurse to evaluate the client for a prolonged muscle
relaxation response to this medication?
A. Hepatitis
B. Heart failure
C. Renal insufficiency
D. History of emphysema - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. Renal insufficiency
Pancuronium is eliminated via the kidneys, so a client with renal failure is at risk for prolonged muscle
relaxation. Although hepatitis can interfere with this drug's metabolism, it does not place a client at
increased risk for prolonged muscle relaxation. Options B and D do not cause prolonged muscle
relaxation in a client who receives pancuronium.
,The health care provider prescribes the anticonvulsant carbamazepine for an adolescent client with a
seizure disorder. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the health care provider if which condition
occurs?
A. Experiences dry mouth.
B. Experiences dizziness.
C. Develops a sore throat.
D. Develops gingival hyperplasia. - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. Develops a sore throat.
Blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia) can be an adverse effect
of carbamazepine. Flulike symptoms, such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, are indications of
such dyscrasias. Options A and B are expected reactions. Option D is a side effect of phenytoin, not
carbamazepine.
A psychiatric client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for haloperidol. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
A. Take with antacids to reduce gastrointestinal irritation.
B. Use sunglasses and sunscreen when outdoors.
C. Eat foods low in fiber and salt.
D. Count the pulse before each dose. - CORRECT ANSWERS-B. Use sunglasses and sunscreen
when outdoors.
Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of haloperidol (Haldol); therefore, the use of sunglasses and
sunscreen should be included in the discharge teaching for this client. Options A, C, and D are not
pertinent to client teaching regarding the use of haloperidol (Haldol).
The nurse is reviewing prescribed medications with a female client who is preparing for discharge. The
client asks the nurse why the oral dose of an opioid analgesic is higher than the IV dose that she received
during hospitalization. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. A higher dose of analgesic medication may be needed after discharge.
B. An error in the dose calculation may have occurred when the prescribed dose was converted.
,C. The doses should be the same unless the pain is not well controlled.
D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of the dose is metabolized. -
CORRECT ANSWERS-D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of
the dose is metabolized.
Oral doses of medication are usually larger than parenteral doses to compensate for the first-pass effect
in the liver after oral administration, which metabolizes more of the drug's dose before affecting its
therapeutic response. Although recommended dose ranges for adults should be individualized, a client's
pain should be controlled at discharge, not option A or C. Option B is inaccurate information to convey to
the client.
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic seizures have been
poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood tests every week. The
mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary. Which complication is assessed through frequent
laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can potentially affect clients managed with
carbamazepine therapy. The client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory
testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does not have as great a potential for
occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy for treatment of
cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration of which type of
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
, D. Cyclophosphamide - CORRECT ANSWERS-D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide. Administration of
options A, B, and C does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection. Which response by the
client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - CORRECT ANSWERS-A. "I'll wear
sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to wear protective
sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects of
this medication.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. His parents report
that his seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug
should the nurse plan to administer in the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine - CORRECT ANSWERS-B. Diazepam
Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus. Options A, C, and D are used for the
long-term management of seizure disorders but are not as useful in the emergency management of
status epilepticus.
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS(DETAILED
ANSWERS)|ALREADY GRADED A+
Dopamine is administered to a client who is hypotensive. Which finding should the nurse identify as a
therapeutic response?
A. Gain in weight
B. Increase in urine output
C. Improved gastric motility
D. Decrease in blood pressure - CORRECT ANSWERS-B. Increase in urine output
Intropin activates dopamine receptors in the kidney and dilates blood vessels to improve renal perfusion,
so an increase in urine output indicates an increase in glomerular filtration caused by increased arterial
blood pressure. Option A is related to fluid retention but is not an indicator of a therapeutic response to
dopamine therapy. Option C is not related to the vasopressor effect of dopamine therapy. Dopamine
increases cardiac output, which increases a client's blood pressure, not option D.
A client receives pancuronium, a long-acting, nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker, during surgical
anesthesia. Which client situation should alert the nurse to evaluate the client for a prolonged muscle
relaxation response to this medication?
A. Hepatitis
B. Heart failure
C. Renal insufficiency
D. History of emphysema - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. Renal insufficiency
Pancuronium is eliminated via the kidneys, so a client with renal failure is at risk for prolonged muscle
relaxation. Although hepatitis can interfere with this drug's metabolism, it does not place a client at
increased risk for prolonged muscle relaxation. Options B and D do not cause prolonged muscle
relaxation in a client who receives pancuronium.
,The health care provider prescribes the anticonvulsant carbamazepine for an adolescent client with a
seizure disorder. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the health care provider if which condition
occurs?
A. Experiences dry mouth.
B. Experiences dizziness.
C. Develops a sore throat.
D. Develops gingival hyperplasia. - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. Develops a sore throat.
Blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia) can be an adverse effect
of carbamazepine. Flulike symptoms, such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, are indications of
such dyscrasias. Options A and B are expected reactions. Option D is a side effect of phenytoin, not
carbamazepine.
A psychiatric client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for haloperidol. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
A. Take with antacids to reduce gastrointestinal irritation.
B. Use sunglasses and sunscreen when outdoors.
C. Eat foods low in fiber and salt.
D. Count the pulse before each dose. - CORRECT ANSWERS-B. Use sunglasses and sunscreen
when outdoors.
Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of haloperidol (Haldol); therefore, the use of sunglasses and
sunscreen should be included in the discharge teaching for this client. Options A, C, and D are not
pertinent to client teaching regarding the use of haloperidol (Haldol).
The nurse is reviewing prescribed medications with a female client who is preparing for discharge. The
client asks the nurse why the oral dose of an opioid analgesic is higher than the IV dose that she received
during hospitalization. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. A higher dose of analgesic medication may be needed after discharge.
B. An error in the dose calculation may have occurred when the prescribed dose was converted.
,C. The doses should be the same unless the pain is not well controlled.
D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of the dose is metabolized. -
CORRECT ANSWERS-D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of
the dose is metabolized.
Oral doses of medication are usually larger than parenteral doses to compensate for the first-pass effect
in the liver after oral administration, which metabolizes more of the drug's dose before affecting its
therapeutic response. Although recommended dose ranges for adults should be individualized, a client's
pain should be controlled at discharge, not option A or C. Option B is inaccurate information to convey to
the client.
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic seizures have been
poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood tests every week. The
mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary. Which complication is assessed through frequent
laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can potentially affect clients managed with
carbamazepine therapy. The client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory
testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does not have as great a potential for
occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy for treatment of
cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration of which type of
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
, D. Cyclophosphamide - CORRECT ANSWERS-D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide. Administration of
options A, B, and C does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection. Which response by the
client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - CORRECT ANSWERS-A. "I'll wear
sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to wear protective
sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects of
this medication.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. His parents report
that his seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug
should the nurse plan to administer in the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine - CORRECT ANSWERS-B. Diazepam
Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus. Options A, C, and D are used for the
long-term management of seizure disorders but are not as useful in the emergency management of
status epilepticus.
