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Vet Science Test Bank exam and correct answers 2024 latest update

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1) When trying to remove a frightened cat from a kennel, which body posture are you least likely to see? A) Tail carried upright C) Ears flattened against head B) Paws elevated D) Crouched position - answer A) Tail carried upright 2) Castration of a male dog will help to eliminate which type of aggressive behavior? A) Territorial aggression C) Predatory aggression B) Fear-induced aggression D) Redirected aggression - answer A) Territorial aggression 3) The most common encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is: A) Canine dominance-aggression biting C) Female rabbit territorial-aggression biting B) Equine dominance-aggression biting D) Canine fear biting - answer D) Canine fear biting 4) Which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure? A) Bird C) Horse B) Dog D) Cat - answer D) Cat 5) Horses display aggression by: A) Biting C) Nickering B) Head butting D) Snorting - answer A) Biting 6) Which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday? A) Pain-induced aggression C) Territorial aggression B) Predatory aggression D) Dominance aggression - answer B) Predatory aggression 7) The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called: A) Sensitization C) Integration B) Socialization D) Anthropomorphism - answer B) Socialization 8) An animal that growls, hisses, bares teeth, air-snaps, and/or lunges is exhibiting______ behavior. A) Dominant C) Threating B) Submissive D) Aggressive - answer C) Threating 9) Most cats prefer to be petted: A) On the head B) On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears C) On the belly D) On the back - answer B) On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears 10) Reinforcement or punishment of emotionally induced behavior is referred to as________ conditioning. A) Positive C) Operant B) Negative D) Counter - answer C) Operant 11) The study of animal behavior is called: A) Homotoxicology C) Mircobiology B) Ethology D) Physiology - answer B) Ethology 12) Agonistic behavior deals with A) Conflict C) Fear-induced B) Territorial D) Dominance - answer A) Conflict 13) Predatory aggression deals with A) Intermale conflict C) Pain-induced B) Suckling female D) Chasing and killing prey - answer D) Chasing and killing prey 14) Following a seizure which sign is not a common behavior for an animal: A) Animal appears blind C) Animal is disoriented B) Animal cannot control bowels D) Elevated body temperature - answer B) Animal cannot control bowels 15) Ears raised, mouth opened in a relaxed grin, lowered front half of body in a "bowing" posture, and tail wagging is considered to be which type of canine visual communication? A) Aggressive C) Submission B) Play D) Relaxed - answer B) Play 16) The feline's first line of defense is: A) Its teeth C) Its tail B) Its claws D) Its hind legs - answer B) It's claws 17) A good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is: A) Apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure the safety of all involved. B) Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe. C) Always supply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of species being handled. D) Never use ropes when restraining animals - answer B) Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe. 18) The most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the: A) Dairy Bull C) Thoroughbred stallion B) Adult male Rottweiler D) Adult female python - answer A) Dairy Bull 19) The best way to approach a horse is: A) Quickly and directly from the front B) Slowly and directly from the front C) Quickly and from the front left side D) Slowly and from the front left side - answer D) Slowly and from the front left side 20) The first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is: A) Put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck B) Place a muzzle C) Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot D) Throw a towel over the dog's head - answer C) Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot 21) If a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should: A) Lift him like you would a medium-sized dog B) Get help so two of you can lift him C) Try to get him to jump up on the table D) Lift his front quarters onto the table then lift hindquarters to meet his front quarter - answer B) Get help so two of you can lift him 22) You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, "Okay". He is most likely asking you to: A) Let go of the dog's foreleg B) Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein C) Talk softly to the dog D) Gently push down on the dog to encourage him to lie down - answer B) Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein 23) One of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is: A) Gently grasp both front legs B) Place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly C) Grasp the scruff of the neck D) Talk softly to the cat - answer C) Grasp the scruff of the neck 24) Which of these is not a warning sign from a cat? A) Hissing C) Swiping at you with a paw B) Ears lowered D) Looking the other way - answer D) Looking the other way 25) As a restraint tool, a towel is used to A) Wrap up an angry cat C) Let the cat hide under B) Let the cat curl up and go to sleep D) Protect you from bites and scratches - answer A) Wrap up an angry cat 26) The types of animal restraint are: A) Physical, psychological, and hypnotic B) Traumatic, chemical, and physical C) Chemical, hypnotic, and psychological D) Chemical, psychological, and physical - answer D) Chemical, psychological, and physical 27) A thorough nutritional assessment consists of a patient's history and a physical examination including body weight, BCS and hydration status. What does BCS stand for: A) Bovine Condition Sessions C) Bowel Condition System B) Body Condition Scoring D) Brand Clinic Survival - answer B) Body Condition Scoring 28) Type of scissors with long handles used for cutting delicate tissue are A) Littauer C) Mayo B) Metzenbaum D) Lister - answer B) Metzenbaum 29) Forceps that are 20 cm (9 inches) with longitudinal grooves are: A) Rochester-Pean C) Rochester- Carmalt B) Kelly D) Crile - answer C) Rochester- Carmalt 30) A needle holder combined with scissor is called A) Mathieu C) Mayo-Hegar B) Rochester-Pean D) Olsen-Hegar - answer D) Olsen-Hegar 31) Self-retaining tissue forceps with multiple fine intermeshing teeth at the tips are called: A) Allis C) Babcock B) Adson D) Brown-Adson - answer A) Allis 32) When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, non-scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the A) Autoclave tape C) Towel B) Indicator D) Gown - answer A) Autoclave tape 33) Which of the following is not a type of surgical scissor? A) Mayo C) Iris B) Metzenbaum D) Lembert - answer D) Lembert 34) Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold edges of the incision open? A) Rat tooth C) Crile B) Brown-Adson D) Allis tissue - answer C) Crile 35) Metzenbaum scissors are only used for A) Cutting suture C) Ophthalmic surgery B) Cutting paper drapes D) Cutting tissue - answer D) Cutting tissue 36) A snook hook is typically used during A) A castration C) A ovariohysterctomy B) A diaphragmatic hernia repair D) Declawing - answer C) A ovariohysterctomy 37) Emasculators are used A) In large animal castrations C) During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares B) During enucleations in large dogs D) To perform ovariohysterectomy - answer A) In large animal castrations 38) Which of the following separates blood? A) Autoclave C) Carmalt B) Centrifuge D) J tube - answer B) Centrifuge 39) The rumen magnet is used in which of the following? A) Dog C) Cow B) Horse D) B & C - answer C) Cow 40) Which of the following tool is used to control a horse? A) Chain twitch C) Humane twitch B) Halter D) All of the above - answer D) All of the above 41) Which is not used to give shots: A) Bulb syringe C) Leur lock syringe B) Slip tip syringe D) Automatic syringe - answer A) Bulb syringe 42) Which statement is true regarding the use of a trocar: A) Trocar is driven through the abdomen into the abomasum of a cow's stomach B) Trocar is a large, sharp probe with a metal sleeve around it and is never plastic C) Once in the Rumen of the animal the probe is removed, leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas D) None of the above are true statements - answer C) Once in the Rumen of the animal the probe is removed, leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas 43) Which of the following a common method of pill administration for a dog or cat? A) Pill Push Method C) Food Method B) Pill Crushed Method D) All are recognized methods of pill administration - answer D) All are recognized methods of pill administration 44) To deliver a copper bolus to an animal, which of the following would be used? A) Stomach pump C) Balling Gun B) Dosing syringe D) Bulb syringe - answer C) Balling Gun 45) When spaying a cat, which instrument would not be used? A) Scalpel handle C) Needle holder B) Standard splint D) Scalpel blade - answer B) Standard splint 46) Which instrument is best for determining if a canine has a scratched cornea? A) Ophthalmoscope C) Otoscope B) Stethoscope D) Trocar - answer A) Ophthalmoscope 47) Which tool simultaneously severs the spermatic cord in order to prevent hemorrhage? A) Elastrator B) Adson tissue forceps B) Babcock tissue forceps D) Emasculator - answer D) Emasculator 48) The following tool aids in the illumination and magnification of the ear: A) Endoscope C) Opthalmoscope B) Stethoscope D) Otoscope - answer D) Otoscope 49) Which dehorner cauterizes as it removes the horn? A) Barnes C) Electric B) Tube D) Allis - answer C) Electric 50) Only the top jaw moves on which forcept? A) Alligator C) Crile B) Kelly D) Brown-Adson - answer A) Alligator 51) Which syringe is most efficient for vaccinating large numbers of animals because of its ability to be adjusted and set to the same dosage? A) Bulb C) Drench B) Automatic D) Paste gun - answer B) Automatic 52) Which is not a type of brush? A) Dandy C) Slicker B) Scotch D) Pin - answer B) Scotch 53) Which is not a form of restraint or control of an animal? A) Elizabethan collar C) Cat bag B) Muzzle D) Cannula - answer D) Cannula 54) Which implement applies a permanent form of identifications? A) Identification Tag applicator C) Tattooing Instruments B) Ear tag pliers D) None of the above - answer C) Tattooing Insturments 55) Which is used to cover the animal except the area that is surgically worked on: A) Surgical gown C) Surgical tray B) Surgical masks D) Surgical drapes - answer D) Surgical drapes 56) Which is not an instrument that is used on a horse: A) Dental float C) Fingertip toothbrush B) Chain Twitch D) Gag mouth speculum - answer C) Fingertip toothbrush 57) Which is not a tool that removes dead hair? A) Flea comb C) Shedding blade B) Curry comb D) Scotch comb - answer A) Flea comb 58) The best suited tool to pull Foxtails out of a dogs ear: A) Rat tooth Forceps C) Adson Tissue Forceps B) Allis Tissue Forceps D) Alligator Forceps - answer D) Alligator Forceps 59) The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is: A) 110 degree C C) 170 degree C B) 121 degree C D) 240 degree C - answer B) 121 degree C 60) The instrument specifically used for collecting a fecal sample directly from the animal's rectum is a: A) Fecal extractor C) Fecal Spoon B) Fecalyzers D) Fecal loop - answer D) Fecal loop

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WGU C785 Final Exam With All The Correct Answers
2024 best solutions wgu c785 already passed

Hemophilia Pedigree - Father has hemophilia, mother does not. What is the outcome for
their kids? - CORRECT ANSWERS His daughters would be carriers. This is x-link
recessive.

Autosomal:
Dominant: - CORRECT ANSWERS Autosomal: males and females equally affected.
Dominant: non-carrier parents

polymerase chain reaction (PCR) - CORRECT ANSWERS The process of copying
DNA in the lab. Uses Template DNA, Nucleotides (dNTPS), DNA Polymerase, and DNA
primers.

3 Steps of PCR - CORRECT ANSWERS 1. Denaturation: DNA is heated to 95C to
separate it.
2. Annealing: reaction is cooled to 50C; primers stick to the DNA you want to copy and
add DNA polymerase.
3. Elongation: reaction heated to 70C and DNA polymerase, adding nucleotides building
a new DNA strand.

Base Excision Repair (BER) - CORRECT ANSWERS How you repair a mutation. BER
is used to repair damage to a base caused by harmful molecules. You remove the base
that is damaged and replace it. *BER removes a single nucleotide*
DNA glycolsylase - sees damaged DNA and removes it.
DNA polymerase-puts the right one back in while DNA ligase seals it.

Mismatch repair (MMR) occurs during: - CORRECT ANSWERS replication. DNA
polymerase proofreads but sometimes a mismatch pair gets through. MMR removes a
large section of the nucleotides from the new DNA and DNA polymerase tries again.
(Ex: C-T instead of C-A)

Mismatch Repair corrects what kind of DNA damage? - CORRECT ANSWERS When
a base is mismatched due to errors in replication. Such as G-T instead of G-C. DNA
polymerase comes by and fixes it.

What happens when DNA polymerase binds to DNA to make RNA? - CORRECT
ANSWERS TRANSCRIPTION! DNA polymerase takes the individual nucleotides and
matches them to the parental sequences to ensure a correct pair. It must bind with RNA
primer to work.

What is needed for DNA replication? - CORRECT ANSWERS DNA polymerase

, Nonsense Mutation - CORRECT ANSWERS Change in 1 nucleotide produces a
STOP codon Stop= nonsense because it is no more.

Silent Mutation - CORRECT ANSWERS Change in 1 nucleotide but codes for the
same amino acid. Silent= the change doesn't change the name of the protein

Missense Mutation - CORRECT ANSWERS Change in 1 nucleotide leads to a code
for a different amino acid. Missense = mistake was made.

What happends during RNA splicing? - CORRECT ANSWERS During RNA splicing
introns are cut out, the remaining exons are joined together.

5'ATG AGT CTC TCT 3'
Find the DNA template strand. - CORRECT ANSWERS 3'TAC TCA GAG AGA 5'
The DNA template strand is complimentary. So start with the opposite number, then go
L-R with the complimentary letter.

5'ATG AGT CTC TCT 3'
What is the corresonding mRNA sequence? - CORRECT ANSWERS 5'AUG AGU CUC
UCU 3'
This sequence is the same as the coding strand except T changes to U because it is
RNA. RNA doesn't have T.

How would a mutation from CTC to ATC affect the protein sequence? (CTC/ATC -
coding strand, AUC - mRNA strand) - CORRECT ANSWERS This will make a
missense mutation because it changes the name of the protein. (look at the chart
provided.) missense = mistake

DNA replication process - CORRECT ANSWERS DNA ->Transcription -> RNA ->
Translation -> Polypeptide

Describe how you would find what ionized Alanine looks like. - CORRECT ANSWERS
This is an amino acid. Look for the "R" group. Alanine is a hydrophobic amino acid that
has CH3. It is a weak interaction. An ionized acid will have a + or - charge.

Describe what causes the misfolding of protein in Alzheimer's Disease. - CORRECT
ANSWERS Protein misfolding is caused by intracellular tangles and extracellular
plaques (senile plaques) caused by abnormal protein aggregation.
TAU is fibrous material inside cells where the connections are lost. This becomes
defective and forms filaments in the neuron.
Amyloid-Beta is a large precursor protein in the cell. Excess amyloid-beta creates senile
plaques. This starts in the hippocampus and moves up.

Describe the process of neurodegenerative protein aggregation. - CORRECT
ANSWERS Alzheimer's is the most common neurodegenerative disease. The formation
of aggregated amyloid-beta fibers is another characterisitc of Alzheimer's. However,

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