HESI Pharmacology Exam Practice (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+ [2026-2027]
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client
with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for
what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Penicillins.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise
precaution before administering this drug.
QUESTION :Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for
a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for
chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity. - CORRECT
ANSWER C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body,
therefore stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite
toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with the
administration of antimetabolites.
QUESTION :When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on
acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain
in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head. - CORRECT ANSWER B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially
important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the
abdomen (B), which might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas
where pain would be anticipated.
QUESTION :An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch
(Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which
information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - CORRECT
ANSWER A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and
has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the
patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of
the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks
muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best
application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C).
Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be
instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
QUESTION :The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled
analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate postoperative period.
The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV
every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What
assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain. - CORRECT
ANSWER B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine
sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump
should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if the client's
respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should
anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is
restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but are not as high a
priority as the assessment described in (B).
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QUESTION :A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most
commonly prescribed for a client with which condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma. - CORRECT ANSWER C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood
pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block
dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic
agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used
in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2
receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory
disorders, such as asthma (D).
QUESTION :A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen
(Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding,
misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most
important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - CORRECT ANSWER A)
Use contraception during intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy
Category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed
2026 2027 GRADED A+