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NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!

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NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!

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NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM


NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE
200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND
NEW VERSION!!
A 63-year-old patient with a 10-year history of poorly controlled hypertension
presents with a cluster of physical exam findings. Which of the following indicate
target organ damage commonly seen in hypertensive patients?

A) Pedal edema, hepatomegaly, and enlarged kidneys
B) Hepatomegaly, AV nicking, bibasilar crackles
C) Renal infection, S3, neuromuscular abnormalities
D) Glaucoma, jugular vein atrophy, heart failure

B) Hepatomegaly, AV nicking, bibasilar crackles



With long-term, uncontrolled hypertension, organ damage may occur. Organs
commonly affected include: brain (stroke), eyes (retinopathy, AV nicking,
bleeding, blindness), heart (heart dis- ease, left ventricular hypertrophy, MI,
and/or CHF), and kidneys (renal failure, proteinuria).

All of the following patients are at higher risk for suicide except:

A) A 66-year-old White male whose wife of 40 years recently died
B) A high school student with a history of bipolar disorder
C) A depressed 45-year-old female with family history of suicide
D) A 17-year-old teen who has only 1 close friend in school

D) A 17-year-old teen who has only one close friend in school Risk factors for
suicide include: 1) elderly white males (especially after the death of a spouse); 2)
past history of suicide; 3) family history of suicide; 4) plans for use of a lethal
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, NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM

weapon such as a gun or knife; 5) female gender has a higher attempt rate, but
males have a higher success rate; 6) personal history of bipolar disorder or
depression.

A 70-year-old male patient complains of a bright red spot in his left eye for 2 days.
He denies eye pain, visual changes, or headaches. He has a new onset of cough
from a recent viral upper respiratory infection. The only medicine he is on is Bayer
aspirin 1 tablet a day. Which of the following is most likely?

A) Corneal abrasion
B) Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
C) Acute uveitis
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage

D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage

Subconjunctival hemorrhage is a benign disorder that occurs from an increase in
intraocular pressure that may be caused by coughing, vomiting, forceful
exerrtion in labor during childbirth, straining while having a bowel movement,
weight lifting, or lifting a heavy object.

Which of the following is appropriate follow-up for this 70-year-old patient?

A) Referral to an optometrist
B) Referral to an ophthalmologist
C) Advise the patient that it is a benign condition and will resolve spontaneously
D) Prescribe an ophthalmic antibiotic solution

C) Advise the patient that it is a benign condition and will resolve spontaneously

A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a benign disorder that resolves without any
treatment



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, NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM

Jason, an 8-year-old with type 1 diabetes, is being seen for a 3-day history of fre-
quency and nocturia. He denies flank pain and is afebrile. The urinalysis result is
negative for blood and nitrites but is positive for a large amount of leukocytes and
ketones. He has a trace amount of protein. Which of the following is the best test
to order initially?

A) Urine for culture and sensitivity
B) 24-hour urine for protein and creatinine clearance
C) 24-hour urine for microalbumin
D) An intravenous pyelogram

A) Urine for culture and sensitivity

An 8-year-old male patient with the diagnosis of diabetes has a high risk of
urinary tract infections. A large amount of leukocytes in the urinalysis is
abnormal and he has been having symptoms of frequency and nocturia for the
past 3 days. The urine culture would be ordered because he has a high risk of
infection. The urine culture and sensitivity (C&S) is the best evaluation for
diagnosing a urinary tract infection.

A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter who just started attending preschool.
She tells the nurse practitioner that her child is complaining of burning and itching
in both eyes along with a runny nose. During the physical exam, the child's eyes
appear injected bilaterally. The throat is red and her inferior nasal turbinates are
swollen. Which of the following is most likely?

A) Herpes keratitis
B) Corneal ulcer
C) Viral conjunctivitis
D) Bacterial conjunctivitis

C) Viral conjunctivitis



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, NUR776 LEIK FNP PRACTICE EXAM

Viral conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva with common complaints
of red, itchy eyes, without signs of infection.

Folic acid supplementation is recommended for women who are planning
pregnancy in order to:

A) Prevent renal agenesis
B) Prevent anencephaly
C) Prevent kidney defects
D) Prevent heart defects

B) Prevent anencephaly

Folic acid supplementation during pregnancy has been shown to decrease the
risk of neural tube defects of the fetus

All of the following are possible causes for secondary hypertension except:

A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Pheochromocytoma
C) Renovascular stenosis
D) Coarctation of the aorta

A) Acute pyelonephritis

Pheochromocytoma is an adrenal gland tumor in which there is increased
production of the hormones adrenaline and noradrena- line, which may cause
long-term elevation in blood pressure. Renovascular steno- sis is a narrowing of
one or both arteries leading to the kidneys. It can cause severe hypertension
and irreversible kidney damage. Coarctation of the aorta is a con- genital heart
defect of the aorta; it is a narrowing of the aorta that causes the heart to work
harder to get blood to flow through the narrow aortic passageway to other
organs, which in turn causes an increase in blood pressure.


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