SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
**Question 1.** Which of the following best describes a project’s temporary
nature?
A) It has an indefinite lifespan.
B) It produces a repeatable product.
C) It has a defined start and end date.
D) It operates continuously within an organization.
Answer: C
Explanation: A project is temporary, meaning it has a specific beginning and
conclusion, unlike ongoing operations.
**Question 2.** In a functional organization, the project manager typically has:
A) Full authority over resources.
B) No authority; functional managers control resources.
C) Direct authority over the project team.
D) Authority equal to the program manager.
Answer: B
Explanation: Functional organizations retain authority within functional lines;
project managers often have limited or no direct authority over resources.
**Question 3.** Which PMO type provides the most control over project
processes?
A) Supportive
B) Controlling
, SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
C) Directive
D) Advisory
Answer: C
Explanation: A directive PMO directly manages projects, assigning project
managers and ensuring compliance with standards.
**Question 4.** The iterative life‑cycle is most appropriate when:
A) Requirements are fully known at the start.
B) The product must be delivered in a single release.
C) Stakeholder feedback is needed early and often.
D) The project follows a strict waterfall approach.
Answer: C
Explanation: Iterative cycles allow repeated refinement based on stakeholder
input throughout development.
**Question 5.** According to PMI’s Code of Ethics, which action is considered a
conflict of interest?
A) Reporting project status accurately.
B) Accepting a gift from a vendor who is bidding on a contract.
C) Using a standard risk register.
D) Delegating tasks to team members.
Answer: B
, SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
Explanation: Receiving gifts from vendors can bias decision‑making, constituting a
conflict of interest.
**Question 6.** The primary purpose of a project charter is to:
A) Detail the work breakdown structure.
B) Authorize the project and define high‑level objectives.
C) Assign daily tasks to team members.
D) Establish the cost baseline.
Answer: B
Explanation: A charter formally authorizes the project, outlines objectives, and
identifies the project manager.
**Question 7.** Which document integrates all subsidiary plans into a cohesive
whole?
A) Scope statement
B) Risk register
C) Project Management Plan
D) Communication matrix
Answer: C
Explanation: The Project Management Plan consolidates scope, schedule, cost,
quality, risk, and other plans.
**Question 8.** When a change request is submitted, the first step is to:
, SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
A) Update the schedule immediately.
B) Evaluate the impact and seek approval through Integrated Change Control.
C) Inform the sponsor without analysis.
D) Cancel the change if it affects scope.
Answer: B
Explanation: Integrated Change Control requires impact analysis and formal
approval before implementation.
**Question 9.** The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a:
A) Hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables into work packages.
B) List of activities with durations.
C) Network diagram showing dependencies.
D) Budget allocation chart.
Answer: A
Explanation: A WBS breaks down the total scope into manageable components for
planning and control.
**Question 10.** Scope validation is performed primarily to:
A) Identify missing requirements.
B) Obtain formal acceptance of completed deliverables from the customer.
C) Update the cost baseline.
D) Create the risk management plan.
**Question 1.** Which of the following best describes a project’s temporary
nature?
A) It has an indefinite lifespan.
B) It produces a repeatable product.
C) It has a defined start and end date.
D) It operates continuously within an organization.
Answer: C
Explanation: A project is temporary, meaning it has a specific beginning and
conclusion, unlike ongoing operations.
**Question 2.** In a functional organization, the project manager typically has:
A) Full authority over resources.
B) No authority; functional managers control resources.
C) Direct authority over the project team.
D) Authority equal to the program manager.
Answer: B
Explanation: Functional organizations retain authority within functional lines;
project managers often have limited or no direct authority over resources.
**Question 3.** Which PMO type provides the most control over project
processes?
A) Supportive
B) Controlling
, SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
C) Directive
D) Advisory
Answer: C
Explanation: A directive PMO directly manages projects, assigning project
managers and ensuring compliance with standards.
**Question 4.** The iterative life‑cycle is most appropriate when:
A) Requirements are fully known at the start.
B) The product must be delivered in a single release.
C) Stakeholder feedback is needed early and often.
D) The project follows a strict waterfall approach.
Answer: C
Explanation: Iterative cycles allow repeated refinement based on stakeholder
input throughout development.
**Question 5.** According to PMI’s Code of Ethics, which action is considered a
conflict of interest?
A) Reporting project status accurately.
B) Accepting a gift from a vendor who is bidding on a contract.
C) Using a standard risk register.
D) Delegating tasks to team members.
Answer: B
, SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
Explanation: Receiving gifts from vendors can bias decision‑making, constituting a
conflict of interest.
**Question 6.** The primary purpose of a project charter is to:
A) Detail the work breakdown structure.
B) Authorize the project and define high‑level objectives.
C) Assign daily tasks to team members.
D) Establish the cost baseline.
Answer: B
Explanation: A charter formally authorizes the project, outlines objectives, and
identifies the project manager.
**Question 7.** Which document integrates all subsidiary plans into a cohesive
whole?
A) Scope statement
B) Risk register
C) Project Management Plan
D) Communication matrix
Answer: C
Explanation: The Project Management Plan consolidates scope, schedule, cost,
quality, risk, and other plans.
**Question 8.** When a change request is submitted, the first step is to:
, SDM 2003001080 PM Practitioner Practice Exam
A) Update the schedule immediately.
B) Evaluate the impact and seek approval through Integrated Change Control.
C) Inform the sponsor without analysis.
D) Cancel the change if it affects scope.
Answer: B
Explanation: Integrated Change Control requires impact analysis and formal
approval before implementation.
**Question 9.** The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a:
A) Hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables into work packages.
B) List of activities with durations.
C) Network diagram showing dependencies.
D) Budget allocation chart.
Answer: A
Explanation: A WBS breaks down the total scope into manageable components for
planning and control.
**Question 10.** Scope validation is performed primarily to:
A) Identify missing requirements.
B) Obtain formal acceptance of completed deliverables from the customer.
C) Update the cost baseline.
D) Create the risk management plan.
