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PCCN Test Bank. Questions with Correct Verified Answers. Latest . Graded A

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This PCCN Test Bank is fully updated for the 2025–2026 edition, providing practice questions with correct, verified answers. It covers essential critical care nursing topics, including patient assessment, hemodynamics, respiratory and cardiac management, and clinical decision-making. Designed to strengthen understanding, critical thinking, and exam readiness, this high-quality resource supports critical care nurses in preparing for the PCCN certification exam and achieving professional success. It is graded A.

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PCCN Test Bank. Questions with
Correct Verified Answers. Latest 2025-
2026. Graded A


A 45-year old woman is admitted with type 1 diabetic mellitus. She is
hyperventilating, has signs of dehydration (increased urine output and
increased thirst), and is tachycardic. Initial treatment would include:
A. Diazoxide (Hyperstat) to inhibit the release of insulin
B. glucose for hypoglycemia
C. insulin therapy for ketoacidosis, fluid and electrolyte replacement
D. intravenous fluids for dehydration and glucose for hypoglycemia -
ANSC. insulin therapy for ketoacidosis, fluid and electrolyte replacement
The patient is exhibiting the signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA). Signs of dehydration, such as polydipsia and polyphagia, are due to
large urine output, increased thirst is secondary to dehydration and
tachycardia is due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation from an
increased glucose level and ketosis. Initial treatment would include insulin
therapy, re-hydration with fluids and electrolyte replacement. Diazoxide
would not be used since it inhibits insulin release (this patient requires
insulin to lower glucose). The patient is not hypoglycemia. Signs and
symptoms of hypoglycemia are similar; tachycardia, change in behavior
(irritability) or level of consciousness, sweating and shaking.


A 45-year-old female with history of bipolar disorder is one-day
postoperative following abdominal surgery. The patient slept only one or

1

,two hours during the night and is speaking rapidly, throwing her belongings
at the nurses and insists she is going to leave the hospital. The nurse
should:
A. Notify the mental health crisis team
B. Notify social services
C. Notify the nursing supervisor
D. Notify the patient's husband - ANSA. Notify the mental health crisis team
In many hospitals, this can be the rapid response team. Not all hospitals
have access to mental health professionals so the rapid response team
answers these calls. The mental health crisis team is comprised of mental
health professionals who can assess the mental status of the patients as
well as the medical-surgical assessment. After the complete assessment is
made, the decision of how to treat this possible exacerbation of her bipolar
disorder may be made. The patient is at risk for hurting herself and others
and may need continuing assessment of mental and surgical status beyond
the rapid response team. Decisions will be made with the attending
physician. Social services may help with placement, but not during an
acute situation. The nursing supervisor may be notified as the rapid
response team is notified; this is a great strategy; however, the supervisor
may not have the ability to assess this complex patient. The supervisor is
more able to delegate care and request more help to the area if needed.
The patient's husband will need to be called after the immediate
assessment is made.


A 55 year old male postoperative patient is demonstrating signs of pain;
tachycardia, hypertension, abdominal guarding and increased respiratory


2

,rate. The patient refuses pain medication because he believes he will
become addicted to the narcotics. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Acknowledge that the patient is entitled to refuse pain medications
B. Tell the patient that opioids have a low addiction rate when used for
postoperative pain while in the hospital
C. Admire the patient's stoicism
D. Acknowledge opioid addiction potential, and offer a back rub - ANSB.
Tell the patient that opioids have a low addiction rate when used for
postoperative pain while in the hospital
Many people are concerned about addiction rates of narcotics; however,
the use of narcotics for postoperative pain while in the hospital has a very
low addiction rate. The risk for abuse increases when patients go home
with narcotics. Explaining to the patient that limited use in the hospital will
increase his recovery and reduce inflammation is the correct response. Any
patient may refuse medications after an explanation of the facts are given.
A back rub or alternative care is a way to treat the patient if they absolutely
refuse medications; however, the best answer is to correct the patient's
misinformation about the use of narcotics during the immediate
postoperative period.


A 55-year old male is admitted from the ICU after an acute Type III aortic
dissection. Treatment plan includes blood pressure control. What
medications would the nurse anticipate in this patient?
A. digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix)
B. metoprolol (Lopressor) and lisinopril (Prinivil)
C. furosemide and spironolactone (Aldactone)


3

, D. bumetanide (Bumex) and amlodipine (Norvasc) - ANSB. metoprolol
(Lopressor) and lisinopril (Prinivil)
The blood pressure control of this patient is the most important treatment in
his care. The two most common drugs for the treatment of an aortic
dissection are a beta blocker and ACE inhibitor. Diuretics may be added for
more control of blood pressure, but are not first-line drugs. Digoxin is not
required for this patient.


A 68 year old male is 4 hours postoperative after percutaneous
transluminal coronary angioplasty and stent placement and complains of
flank pain. He is restless, tachycardic, hypotensive, and his hemoglobin
and hematocrit levels (H+H) have dropped. Which of the following nursing
actions is correct?
A. Keep the head of the bed flat and apply pressure at the sheath site to
stop bleeding.
B. Notify a physician immediately and anticipate ultrasound-guided
compression and possible surgery to stop the bleeding.
C. Notify a physician immediately, and anticipate anticoagulation or
thrombolytic therapy.
D. Notify a physician immediately, stop anticoagulation therapy, and
anticipate the need for intravenous fluid and/or blood - ANSD. Notify a
physician immediately, stop anticoagulation therapy, and anticipate the
need for intravenous fluid and/or blood
This angioplasty and stent patient is probably experiencing a
retroperitoneal arterial bleed into the flank area, requiring cessation of
anticoagulants and preparation for fluid administration and/or blood. Lying
the patient flat and applying pressure to the sheath site treats the bleeding

4

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