LEIK FNP CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP 2026/2027
ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
SOLUTIONS || 100 % GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. The best screening test for detecting and monitoring both hyperthyroidism
and hypothyroidism is:
A) The total T3-4
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Thyroid profile
D) Palpation of the thyroid gland - ANSWER ✔ B) Thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH)
The best "screening" test of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism is the
TSH. If this result is abnormal, then further diagnostic tests should be
performed.
2. A patient who recently returned from a vacation in Latin America complains
of a severe headache and stiff neck that are accompanied by a high fever for
the past 12 hours. While examining the patient, the nurse practitioner flexes
both the patient's hips and legs and then tells the patient to straighten them
against resistance. The name of this test is:
A) Kernig's maneuver
B) Brudzinski's maneuver
C) Murphy's sign
, D) Homan's sign - ANSWER ✔ A) Kernig's maneuver
Kernig's maneuver is performed by having the patient flex both hips and legs
and then straighten the legs against resistance, testing for meningitis. Flexion
of hip/knees is a positive sign for meningitis. Brudzinski's maneuver is
performed by placing the patient's hands behind his head, and gently tucking
chin to chest. Murphy's sign is elicited by having the patient inspire with the
tips of the examiner's fingers placed on the right upper quadrant, at the liver
border, under the ribs. Pain on inspiration is suggestive of cholecystitis.
Homan's sign is flexion of the foot, causing pain in the posterior calf area,
suggestive of a DVT.
3. Which of the following groups has been recommended to be screened for
thyroid disease?
A) Women 50 years or older
B) Adolescent females
C) Elderly males
D) School-age children - ANSWER ✔ A) Women 50 years or older
Screening for thyroid disease is recommended for women 50 years of age
and older.
4. A 65-year-old Hispanic woman has a history of type 2 diabetes. A routine
urinalysis reveals a few epithelial cells and is negative for leukocytes,
nitrites, and protein. Which of the following would you recommend next?
A) Order a urine for C&S
, B) Order a 24-hour urine for microalbumin
C) Because it is negative, no further tests are necessary
D) Recommend a screening IVP (intravenous pyelogram) - ANSWER ✔
B) Order a 24-hour urine for microalbumin
Epithelial cells are cells that are present on the inside lining of the organs.
Few epithelial cells can be normal; however, with her history of type 2
diabetes, a 24-hour urine for microalbumin should be ordered to assess
kidney function.
5. An adolescent female's areola, nipples, and breast tissue develop and
become elevated as one mound. Which of the following is the correct Tanner
stage for this phase of breast development?
A. Tanner stage I
B. Tanner stage II
C. Tanner stage III
D. Tanner stage IV - ANSWER ✔ C) Tanner stage III
During Tanner stage III, the breast and areola and nipples grow together in
one mound. There is no separation yet. At Tanner stage IV, the areola and
the nipple separate to form a distinct mound. The most important clue is
"secondary mound."
6. The cremasteric reflex is elicited by:
A. Asking the patient to open his or her mouth and touching the
back of the pharynx with a tongue blade
B. Hitting the biceps tendon briskly with a reflex hammer and
watching the lower arm for movement
C. Hitting the patellar tendon briskly with a reflex hammer and
watching the lower leg for movement
D. Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient and watching the
testicle on the ipsilateral side rise up toward the body -
ANSWER ✔ D) Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient and
, watching the testicle on the ipsilateral side rise up toward the
body The cremasteric reflex is elicited by stroking the inner
thigh (proximal to distal) with a blunt instrument such as a
handle of the reflex hammer. The testicle and scrotum should
rise on the stroked (ipsilateral) side.
7. You have diagnosed a 30-year-old male patient with contact dermatitis on
the left side of the face secondary to poison ivy. You would recommend:
A. Washing with antibacterial soap BID to reduce risk of
secondary bacterial infection until it is healed
B. Zanfel poison ivy wash
C. Clotrimazole (Lotrimin) cream BID for 2 weeks
D. Halcinonide (Halog) 1% ointment BID for 2 weeks -
ANSWER ✔ B) Zanfel poison ivy wash Zanfel is a soap-like
product (OTC) that removes urushiol oil from poison ivy,
poison sumac, and poison oak. It will relieve the itch and pain
quickly. A topical steroid can be used to speed up healing. For
rashes, hydrocortisone cream 1% BID (OTC) is helpful.
8. Pulsus paradoxus is best described as:
A. An increase in systolic blood pressure on inspiration
B. A decrease in diastolic blood pressure on exhalation
C. A decrease in systolic blood pressure on inspiration
D. An increase in diastolic blood pressure on expiration -
ANSWER ✔ C) A decrease in systolic blood pressure on
inspiration In patients with pulsus paradoxus, systolic pressure
drops on inspiration due to the increased pressure (positive
pressure). Some pulmonary risks of having increased pressure
include asthma and emphysema.
9. Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at higher risk for the
following:
A. Heart disease and endometrial cancer
B. Uterine fibroids and ovarian cancer
ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
SOLUTIONS || 100 % GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. The best screening test for detecting and monitoring both hyperthyroidism
and hypothyroidism is:
A) The total T3-4
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Thyroid profile
D) Palpation of the thyroid gland - ANSWER ✔ B) Thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH)
The best "screening" test of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism is the
TSH. If this result is abnormal, then further diagnostic tests should be
performed.
2. A patient who recently returned from a vacation in Latin America complains
of a severe headache and stiff neck that are accompanied by a high fever for
the past 12 hours. While examining the patient, the nurse practitioner flexes
both the patient's hips and legs and then tells the patient to straighten them
against resistance. The name of this test is:
A) Kernig's maneuver
B) Brudzinski's maneuver
C) Murphy's sign
, D) Homan's sign - ANSWER ✔ A) Kernig's maneuver
Kernig's maneuver is performed by having the patient flex both hips and legs
and then straighten the legs against resistance, testing for meningitis. Flexion
of hip/knees is a positive sign for meningitis. Brudzinski's maneuver is
performed by placing the patient's hands behind his head, and gently tucking
chin to chest. Murphy's sign is elicited by having the patient inspire with the
tips of the examiner's fingers placed on the right upper quadrant, at the liver
border, under the ribs. Pain on inspiration is suggestive of cholecystitis.
Homan's sign is flexion of the foot, causing pain in the posterior calf area,
suggestive of a DVT.
3. Which of the following groups has been recommended to be screened for
thyroid disease?
A) Women 50 years or older
B) Adolescent females
C) Elderly males
D) School-age children - ANSWER ✔ A) Women 50 years or older
Screening for thyroid disease is recommended for women 50 years of age
and older.
4. A 65-year-old Hispanic woman has a history of type 2 diabetes. A routine
urinalysis reveals a few epithelial cells and is negative for leukocytes,
nitrites, and protein. Which of the following would you recommend next?
A) Order a urine for C&S
, B) Order a 24-hour urine for microalbumin
C) Because it is negative, no further tests are necessary
D) Recommend a screening IVP (intravenous pyelogram) - ANSWER ✔
B) Order a 24-hour urine for microalbumin
Epithelial cells are cells that are present on the inside lining of the organs.
Few epithelial cells can be normal; however, with her history of type 2
diabetes, a 24-hour urine for microalbumin should be ordered to assess
kidney function.
5. An adolescent female's areola, nipples, and breast tissue develop and
become elevated as one mound. Which of the following is the correct Tanner
stage for this phase of breast development?
A. Tanner stage I
B. Tanner stage II
C. Tanner stage III
D. Tanner stage IV - ANSWER ✔ C) Tanner stage III
During Tanner stage III, the breast and areola and nipples grow together in
one mound. There is no separation yet. At Tanner stage IV, the areola and
the nipple separate to form a distinct mound. The most important clue is
"secondary mound."
6. The cremasteric reflex is elicited by:
A. Asking the patient to open his or her mouth and touching the
back of the pharynx with a tongue blade
B. Hitting the biceps tendon briskly with a reflex hammer and
watching the lower arm for movement
C. Hitting the patellar tendon briskly with a reflex hammer and
watching the lower leg for movement
D. Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient and watching the
testicle on the ipsilateral side rise up toward the body -
ANSWER ✔ D) Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient and
, watching the testicle on the ipsilateral side rise up toward the
body The cremasteric reflex is elicited by stroking the inner
thigh (proximal to distal) with a blunt instrument such as a
handle of the reflex hammer. The testicle and scrotum should
rise on the stroked (ipsilateral) side.
7. You have diagnosed a 30-year-old male patient with contact dermatitis on
the left side of the face secondary to poison ivy. You would recommend:
A. Washing with antibacterial soap BID to reduce risk of
secondary bacterial infection until it is healed
B. Zanfel poison ivy wash
C. Clotrimazole (Lotrimin) cream BID for 2 weeks
D. Halcinonide (Halog) 1% ointment BID for 2 weeks -
ANSWER ✔ B) Zanfel poison ivy wash Zanfel is a soap-like
product (OTC) that removes urushiol oil from poison ivy,
poison sumac, and poison oak. It will relieve the itch and pain
quickly. A topical steroid can be used to speed up healing. For
rashes, hydrocortisone cream 1% BID (OTC) is helpful.
8. Pulsus paradoxus is best described as:
A. An increase in systolic blood pressure on inspiration
B. A decrease in diastolic blood pressure on exhalation
C. A decrease in systolic blood pressure on inspiration
D. An increase in diastolic blood pressure on expiration -
ANSWER ✔ C) A decrease in systolic blood pressure on
inspiration In patients with pulsus paradoxus, systolic pressure
drops on inspiration due to the increased pressure (positive
pressure). Some pulmonary risks of having increased pressure
include asthma and emphysema.
9. Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at higher risk for the
following:
A. Heart disease and endometrial cancer
B. Uterine fibroids and ovarian cancer
