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AACN CMC PRACTICE EXAM|| ACTUAL EXAM WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE 2025 WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| GUARANTEED PASS!!!

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AACN CMC PRACTICE EXAM|| ACTUAL EXAM WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE 2025 WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| GUARANTEED PASS!!! While caring for a patient with an IABP at 3:1, the nurse notes: A. decreasing urine output as well as increasing BUN and CR levels; the nurse should increase timing to 2:1 B. absent pulses in the proximal extremity; the nurse should apply pressure at the insertion site. C. blood in the IABP tubing; the nurse should disconnect the balloon catheter from the IABP. D. blood oozing from the insertion site; the nurse should anticipate the need for an emergency fasciotomy. ANSWER- A. incorrect. decreasing urine output with increasing BUN and CR levels with an IABP in place indicates obstruction of the renal arteries. The nurse should plan for removal. B. incorrect. absent pulses distal to the insertion site indicates complete occlusion of the femoral artery. application of pressure to the insertion site will worsen the obstruction. C. correct. blood in the IABP tubing indicates a rupture of the balloon. Continuing to allow the IABP to inflate and deflate will increase the size of the rupture, causing more bleeding. the nurse should plan for removal or exchange of the IABP catheter. D. incorrect. a fasciotomy would be indicated if the patient had an increase in fluid accumulation in the extremities causing significant injury to the limb. A nurse is establishing alarm limits on a patient admitted to rule out MI. Which of the following patient positions and ST segment alarm settings should the nurse use? A. supine position and 1 mm above and below baseline. Page 2 of 50 B. supine position and 2 mm above and below baseline. C. upright position and 1 mm above and below baseline. D. upright position and 2 mm above and below baseline. ANSWER- A. correct. supine position allows for more accurate electrode placement. ST segment limits are placed 1mm above or below for monitoring patients at high risk for ischemia. B. incorrect. ST segment may be set 2mm above or below for stable patients without high risk for ischemia. C. incorrect. D. incorrect. Following the patient's emergency PCI with the sheath left in, the nurse pulls back the covers and discovers the bandage over the procedure site and the linens soaked with blood. the nurse should first: A. assess the site and call the cath lab staff. B. place the patient in trendelenburg and infuse fluids. C. apply direct pressure and notify the MD. D. reinforce the dressing and obtain a CBC. ANSWER- A. incorrect. this is not the first thing you should do. B. incorrect. C. correct. D. incorrect. reinforcing does not stop the bleeding. a CBC could be obtained but isn't the first priority. In reviewing the lab findings of a patient who has not been able to afford medication, the nurse observed elevated T3 and T4 results. the nurse recognizes the patient is at risk for developing

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AACN CMC
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Page 1 of 50



AACN CMC PRACTICE EXAM|| ACTUAL EXAM
WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS GRADED A+|| LATEST AND
COMPLETE UPDATE 2025 WITH VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS|| GUARANTEED PASS!!!
While caring for a patient with an IABP at 3:1, the nurse notes:
A. decreasing urine output as well as increasing BUN and CR levels; the nurse
should increase timing to 2:1
B. absent pulses in the proximal extremity; the nurse should apply pressure at the
insertion site.
C. blood in the IABP tubing; the nurse should disconnect the balloon catheter from
the IABP.
D. blood oozing from the insertion site; the nurse should anticipate the need for an
emergency fasciotomy. ANSWER- A. incorrect. decreasing urine output with
increasing BUN and CR levels with an IABP in place indicates obstruction of the
renal arteries. The nurse should plan for removal.
B. incorrect. absent pulses distal to the insertion site indicates complete occlusion
of the femoral artery. application of pressure to the insertion site will worsen the
obstruction.
C. correct. blood in the IABP tubing indicates a rupture of the balloon. Continuing
to allow the IABP to inflate and deflate will increase the size of the rupture,
causing more bleeding. the nurse should plan for removal or exchange of the IABP
catheter.
D. incorrect. a fasciotomy would be indicated if the patient had an increase in fluid
accumulation in the extremities causing significant injury to the limb.


A nurse is establishing alarm limits on a patient admitted to rule out MI. Which of
the following patient positions and ST segment alarm settings should the nurse
use?
A. supine position and 1 mm above and below baseline.

,Page 2 of 50


B. supine position and 2 mm above and below baseline.
C. upright position and 1 mm above and below baseline.
D. upright position and 2 mm above and below baseline. ANSWER- A. correct.
supine position allows for more accurate electrode placement. ST segment limits
are placed 1mm above or below for monitoring patients at high risk for ischemia.
B. incorrect. ST segment may be set 2mm above or below for stable patients
without high risk for ischemia.
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect.


Following the patient's emergency PCI with the sheath left in, the nurse pulls back
the covers and discovers the bandage over the procedure site and the linens soaked
with blood. the nurse should first:
A. assess the site and call the cath lab staff.
B. place the patient in trendelenburg and infuse fluids.
C. apply direct pressure and notify the MD.
D. reinforce the dressing and obtain a CBC. ANSWER- A. incorrect. this is not
the first thing you should do.
B. incorrect.
C. correct.
D. incorrect. reinforcing does not stop the bleeding. a CBC could be obtained but
isn't the first priority.


In reviewing the lab findings of a patient who has not been able to afford
medication, the nurse observed elevated T3 and T4 results. the nurse recognizes
the patient is at risk for developing
A. V-Tach
B. A-Fib

,Page 3 of 50


C. atrioventricular conduction defects
D. WPW syndrome ANSWER- A. incorrect. V-Tach is not commonly associated
with hyperthyroidism.
B. correct. hyperthyroidism can induce a-fib. thyroid hormones contribute to
arrhythmogenic activity by inducing catecholamine release.1
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect. WPW syndrome is a complication of A-Fib.


It is most important to instruct patients discharged on diuretics to
A. expect muscle cramps
B. record their daily weight
C. take their medication at the same time every day
D. avoid grapefruit juice ANSWER- A. incorrect. muscle cramps can be a sign of
dehydration which can occur with over diuresis or decreased fluid intake. this is
important but not the most important.
B. correct. daily weight records track volume loss and gain with diuretic
administration to monitor for fluid retention or excessive diuresis.
C. incorrect. not the most important.
D. incorrect. grapefruit juice has not affect on the metabolism of diuretics.


A patient is receiving metoprolol (Lopressor), atorvastatin (Lipitor), carvedilol
(Coreg), and nesiritide (Natrecor). which of the following lab test levels should the
nurse question?
A. fibrinogen
B. LDL
C. thyroid

, Page 4 of 50


D. BNP ANSWER- A. incorrect. fibrinogen level assesses for the presence of an
elevated clotting risk. this assessment would be important for this patient with the
suspicion of thrombus development.
B. incorrect. LDL would be indicated for the assessment of the effectiveness of
atorvastatin.
C. incorrect. checking a thyroid level would be indicated to assess if thyroid
changes are the cause linked to decreasing metabolic rate or the presence of
hypotension in this patient.
D. correct. medications that the patient is receiving indicate management of heart
failure. nesiritide promotes vasodilation, natriuresis and diuresis to correct HF and
is a synthetic form of BNP. BNP assessment would not be indicated for ongoing
management due to elevation with baseline heart failure and medication.


The nurse is caring for a patient on mechanical ventilation with SOB, fever, chills,
and a productive cough with yellow secretions. What sounds would most likely be
evident upon auscultation of the chest?
A. expiratory wheezing
B. coarse crackles
C. pleural vesicular
D. inspiratory stridor ANSWER- A. incorrect. wheezing would be present with
asthma and bronchospasm.
B. correct. coarse crackles are heard in the presence of fluid trapped in the small
airways. the patients symptoms are consistent with the diagnosis of pneumonia.
C. incorrect. pleural vesicular are normal breath sounds.
D. incorrect.


The echocardiogram for a patient with an anterior wall STEMI demonstrates
severe left ventricular dysfunction requiring cardiac output support. the patient
would best benefit from:
A. dobutamine (Dobutrex)

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