PRN1500 — MATERNAL & CHILD NURSING:
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2025|2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pregnant client at 28 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal
movements. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Advise the client to drink orange juice and rest.
B. Schedule a nonstress test (NST) for the next day.
C. Perform a fetal movement count and instruct immediate reporting if
decreased persists.
D. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this
gestational age.
Italics: Decreased fetal movement may signal fetal compromise; immediate
assessment (kick counts, further testing) is indicated rather than delay or
dismissal.
2. The best time for administration of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to
an Rh-negative mother is:
A. At conception.
B. At 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours postpartum if infant is Rh-
positive.
C. Only if there is bleeding during pregnancy.
D. Only after first trimester abortion.
Italics: Standard prophylaxis at 28 weeks and postpartum prevents
maternal sensitization; additional doses are given after known fetomaternal
hemorrhage.
3. A client in active labor has strong, regular contractions every 2 minutes and
is fully dilated. The priority nursing action is:
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth.
C. Encourage the client to bear down and assist with delivery.
, D. Apply external fetal monitoring.
Italics: Full dilation with frequent contractions indicates second stage —
assist with pushing and prepare for imminent birth.
4. Which sign best indicates labor is progressing from latent to active phase?
A. Contractions become irregular.
B. Cervical effacement increases to 100%.
C. Cervical dilation accelerates beyond 3–4 cm.
D. Maternal fatigue increases.
Italics: Active labor is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation (usually
>1 cm/hr in primigravidas) and stronger, more regular contractions.
5. A newborn has a heart rate of 80 beats per minute immediately after birth
and is pale and limp. According to the Neonatal Resuscitation Program, the
nurse’s first action is to:
A. Start chest compressions.
B. Begin positive-pressure ventilation (PPV).
C. Administer epinephrine.
D. Suction the airway for 30 seconds.
Italics: HR <100 in newborns indicates need for effective ventilatory support
(PPV); chest compressions begin if HR <60 despite ventilation.
6. The best nursing intervention to promote successful breastfeeding in the
first hour postpartum is:
A. Give the mother a pacifier to soothe the baby.
B. Encourage skin-to-skin contact and early initiation of breastfeeding.
C. Delay feeding until lactation is established.
D. Supplement with formula to ensure adequate intake.
Italics: Skin-to-skin and early latch support breastfeeding initiation and
infant thermoregulation; routine supplementation undermines supply
unless medically indicated.
7. A woman with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate 14/min.
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr.
C. Absent deep tendon reflexes and respiratory depression.
, D. Mild flushing and warmth.
Italics: Magnesium toxicity presents with loss of reflexes and respiratory
depression; administer calcium gluconate and stop infusion per protocol.
8. A 2-day-old newborn is jaundiced with total bilirubin of 18 mg/dL (term
infant). The priority nursing action is to:
A. Encourage more frequent feedings.
B. Prepare to initiate phototherapy per facility protocol.
C. Delay breastfeeding for 24 hours.
D. Discharge home with outpatient follow-up.
Italics: Bilirubin at this level in a term neonate often requires phototherapy
to reduce risk of kernicterus; feeding encouragement is supportive but not
sufficient.
9. The primary purpose of a biophysical profile (BPP) is to:
A. Diagnose congenital anomalies.
B. Assess fetal well-being by evaluating movement, tone, breathing,
amniotic fluid, and NST.
C. Predict exact time of labor onset.
D. Measure fetal weight.
Italics: BPP combines ultrasound and NST components to evaluate fetal
oxygenation and CNS integrity.
10.A postpartum client 24 hours after vaginal birth has a fundus displaced 3
cm above the umbilicus and to the right. The nurse should:
A. Document as normal involution.
B. Assist the client to void and then reassess fundal position.
C. Massage the fundus vigorously.
D. Notify the physician for possible retained placenta.
Italics: A displaced fundus often indicates bladder distention; voiding usually
corrects fundal location before other interventions.
11.When teaching a pregnant client about folic acid, the nurse should
emphasize that folic acid is important to prevent:
A. Spina bifida and neural tube defects.
B. Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida).
C. Down syndrome.
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2025|2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pregnant client at 28 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal
movements. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Advise the client to drink orange juice and rest.
B. Schedule a nonstress test (NST) for the next day.
C. Perform a fetal movement count and instruct immediate reporting if
decreased persists.
D. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this
gestational age.
Italics: Decreased fetal movement may signal fetal compromise; immediate
assessment (kick counts, further testing) is indicated rather than delay or
dismissal.
2. The best time for administration of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to
an Rh-negative mother is:
A. At conception.
B. At 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours postpartum if infant is Rh-
positive.
C. Only if there is bleeding during pregnancy.
D. Only after first trimester abortion.
Italics: Standard prophylaxis at 28 weeks and postpartum prevents
maternal sensitization; additional doses are given after known fetomaternal
hemorrhage.
3. A client in active labor has strong, regular contractions every 2 minutes and
is fully dilated. The priority nursing action is:
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth.
C. Encourage the client to bear down and assist with delivery.
, D. Apply external fetal monitoring.
Italics: Full dilation with frequent contractions indicates second stage —
assist with pushing and prepare for imminent birth.
4. Which sign best indicates labor is progressing from latent to active phase?
A. Contractions become irregular.
B. Cervical effacement increases to 100%.
C. Cervical dilation accelerates beyond 3–4 cm.
D. Maternal fatigue increases.
Italics: Active labor is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation (usually
>1 cm/hr in primigravidas) and stronger, more regular contractions.
5. A newborn has a heart rate of 80 beats per minute immediately after birth
and is pale and limp. According to the Neonatal Resuscitation Program, the
nurse’s first action is to:
A. Start chest compressions.
B. Begin positive-pressure ventilation (PPV).
C. Administer epinephrine.
D. Suction the airway for 30 seconds.
Italics: HR <100 in newborns indicates need for effective ventilatory support
(PPV); chest compressions begin if HR <60 despite ventilation.
6. The best nursing intervention to promote successful breastfeeding in the
first hour postpartum is:
A. Give the mother a pacifier to soothe the baby.
B. Encourage skin-to-skin contact and early initiation of breastfeeding.
C. Delay feeding until lactation is established.
D. Supplement with formula to ensure adequate intake.
Italics: Skin-to-skin and early latch support breastfeeding initiation and
infant thermoregulation; routine supplementation undermines supply
unless medically indicated.
7. A woman with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate 14/min.
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr.
C. Absent deep tendon reflexes and respiratory depression.
, D. Mild flushing and warmth.
Italics: Magnesium toxicity presents with loss of reflexes and respiratory
depression; administer calcium gluconate and stop infusion per protocol.
8. A 2-day-old newborn is jaundiced with total bilirubin of 18 mg/dL (term
infant). The priority nursing action is to:
A. Encourage more frequent feedings.
B. Prepare to initiate phototherapy per facility protocol.
C. Delay breastfeeding for 24 hours.
D. Discharge home with outpatient follow-up.
Italics: Bilirubin at this level in a term neonate often requires phototherapy
to reduce risk of kernicterus; feeding encouragement is supportive but not
sufficient.
9. The primary purpose of a biophysical profile (BPP) is to:
A. Diagnose congenital anomalies.
B. Assess fetal well-being by evaluating movement, tone, breathing,
amniotic fluid, and NST.
C. Predict exact time of labor onset.
D. Measure fetal weight.
Italics: BPP combines ultrasound and NST components to evaluate fetal
oxygenation and CNS integrity.
10.A postpartum client 24 hours after vaginal birth has a fundus displaced 3
cm above the umbilicus and to the right. The nurse should:
A. Document as normal involution.
B. Assist the client to void and then reassess fundal position.
C. Massage the fundus vigorously.
D. Notify the physician for possible retained placenta.
Italics: A displaced fundus often indicates bladder distention; voiding usually
corrects fundal location before other interventions.
11.When teaching a pregnant client about folic acid, the nurse should
emphasize that folic acid is important to prevent:
A. Spina bifida and neural tube defects.
B. Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida).
C. Down syndrome.
