Pharmacist Assessment for Remediation
Evaluation (PhARE)Exam Verified Questions,
Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for
Science Students||Already Graded A+
1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which INR
range is typically therapeutic for non-valvular atrial fibrillation?
A. 1.0–1.5
B. 2.0–3.0
C. 2.5–3.5
D. 3.0–4.0
Answer: B
An INR of 2.0–3.0 balances the risk of thrombosis and bleeding in
non-valvular atrial fibrillation.
2. Which medication is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates?
A. Metoprolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Sildenafil
D. Lisinopril
Answer: C
Sildenafil can cause severe hypotension when combined with nitrates
due to additive vasodilation.
3. A patient presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which is the
most appropriate immediate treatment?
A. Insulin
B. Metformin
,C. Oral glucose or glucagon
D. Acarbose
Answer: C
Rapid correction of low blood glucose is essential to prevent
neurologic damage.
4. Which adverse effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Bradycardia
C. Dry cough
D. Edema of the ankles
Answer: C
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which commonly causes a
persistent dry cough.
5. A patient on long-term corticosteroids is at highest risk for which
condition?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Osteoporosis
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Chronic steroid use decreases bone formation and increases bone
resorption.
6. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for uncomplicated urinary
tract infection?
,A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Vancomycin
D. Linezolid
Answer: B
Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated UTIs due to its efficacy
and low resistance.
7. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in
hypertension?
A. Increase renal sodium excretion
B. Block calcium channels
C. Decrease heart rate and cardiac output
D. Increase peripheral vasodilation directly
Answer: C
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure mainly by lowering heart rate
and cardiac output.
8. Which vaccine is contraindicated in immunocompromised
patients?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Hepatitis B
C. Pneumococcal
D. MMR (live)
Answer: D
Live vaccines can cause infection in immunocompromised individuals.
9. A patient taking digoxin develops nausea and visual
disturbances. What is the most likely cause?
, A. Subtherapeutic dose
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Drug allergy
D. Dehydration only
Answer: B
Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include nausea and visual changes
such as yellow halos.
10. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely in patients
taking statins?
A. Serum sodium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Liver enzymes (AST/ALT)
D. INR
Answer: C
Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function monitoring is
recommended.
11. Which medication is used as a reversal agent for opioid
overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B
Naloxone rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
12. A patient with asthma should avoid which medication?
Evaluation (PhARE)Exam Verified Questions,
Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for
Science Students||Already Graded A+
1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which INR
range is typically therapeutic for non-valvular atrial fibrillation?
A. 1.0–1.5
B. 2.0–3.0
C. 2.5–3.5
D. 3.0–4.0
Answer: B
An INR of 2.0–3.0 balances the risk of thrombosis and bleeding in
non-valvular atrial fibrillation.
2. Which medication is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates?
A. Metoprolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Sildenafil
D. Lisinopril
Answer: C
Sildenafil can cause severe hypotension when combined with nitrates
due to additive vasodilation.
3. A patient presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which is the
most appropriate immediate treatment?
A. Insulin
B. Metformin
,C. Oral glucose or glucagon
D. Acarbose
Answer: C
Rapid correction of low blood glucose is essential to prevent
neurologic damage.
4. Which adverse effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Bradycardia
C. Dry cough
D. Edema of the ankles
Answer: C
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which commonly causes a
persistent dry cough.
5. A patient on long-term corticosteroids is at highest risk for which
condition?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Osteoporosis
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Chronic steroid use decreases bone formation and increases bone
resorption.
6. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for uncomplicated urinary
tract infection?
,A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Vancomycin
D. Linezolid
Answer: B
Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated UTIs due to its efficacy
and low resistance.
7. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in
hypertension?
A. Increase renal sodium excretion
B. Block calcium channels
C. Decrease heart rate and cardiac output
D. Increase peripheral vasodilation directly
Answer: C
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure mainly by lowering heart rate
and cardiac output.
8. Which vaccine is contraindicated in immunocompromised
patients?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Hepatitis B
C. Pneumococcal
D. MMR (live)
Answer: D
Live vaccines can cause infection in immunocompromised individuals.
9. A patient taking digoxin develops nausea and visual
disturbances. What is the most likely cause?
, A. Subtherapeutic dose
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Drug allergy
D. Dehydration only
Answer: B
Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include nausea and visual changes
such as yellow halos.
10. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely in patients
taking statins?
A. Serum sodium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Liver enzymes (AST/ALT)
D. INR
Answer: C
Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function monitoring is
recommended.
11. Which medication is used as a reversal agent for opioid
overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B
Naloxone rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
12. A patient with asthma should avoid which medication?
