Test Bank for Biochemistry, 9e Lubert Stryer, Jeremy Berg,
John Tymoczko, Gregory Gatto (All Chapters)
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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which statement about DNA structure is INCORRECT?
a. It is a branched polymer with a flexible backbone.
b. The DNA backbone is built of repeating sugar–phosphate units.
c. Each DNA strand has directionality due to identical orientation of the sugar–phosphate units.
d. Each sugar is connected to two phosphate groups through different linkages.
e. Its structure is a double helix composed of two intertwined strands.
2. What method can be used to separate proteins only by their charge?
a. gel-filtration chromatography
b. affinity chromatography
c. gel electrophoresis
d. ion-exchange chromatography
e. dialysis
3. pUC plasmids are useful for screening cells that contain recombinant DNA because they contain the _____
gene.
a. β-galactosidase
b. tetracycline resistance
c. green fluorescent protein
d. luciferase
e. DNA polymerase
4. Why are free interactions of water molecules in bulk water more favorable than more ordered interactions
with nonpolar compounds?
a. The total entropy in such interactions increases because the Gibbs free energy is positive.
b. The total entropy in such interactions decreases because the Gibbs free energy is negative.
c. The enthalpy of the ordered state is lower than the enthalpy of the bulk state.
d. The total entropy in such interactions increases because the Gibbs free energy is negative.
e. The total entropy in such interactions decreases because the Gibbs free energy is positive.
5. The lacZα gene encodes the fragment of the:
a. α-galactosidase.
b. carbohydrase.
c. β-galactosidase.
d. α-amylase.
e. β-amylase.
6. What isomers of amino acids are found in proteins and what absolute configuration do they have?
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a. L isomer; R absolute configuration
b. D and L isomers; R absolute configuration
c. L isomer; S absolute configuration
d. D isomer; S absolute configuration
e. L and D isomers; S absolute configuration
7. What process generates different mRNA that are templates for different forms of a protein without requiring
a gene for each protein?
a. transcription
b. exon shuffling
c. degenerate splicing
d. alternative splicing
e. recombination
8. What technique can be used to determine the mass-to-charge ratio of a molecule?
a. Edman degradation
b. affinity chromatography
c. diagonal electrophoresis
d. MALDI-TOF
e. SDS-PAGE
9. Each three-base codon encodes a specific:
a. DNA nucleotide.
b. mRNA nucleotide.
c. tRNA nucleotide.
d. rRNA nucleotide.
e. amino acid.
10. What DNA sequence contains a palindromic inverted repeat such as those recognized by restriction
enzymes? (Note: Only one strand is shown.)
a. CAGTCC
b. GCATCC
c. CGATTAGC
d. GAGAGAGA
e. GCATATGC
11. A protein with a molecular weight of 75 550 g mol–1 has a mass of:
a. 75,550 Da or 755.5 kDa.
b. 7555 Da or 75.55 kDa.
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c. 75,550 Da or 75.55 kDa.
d. 755,500 Da or 7.555 kDa.
e. 7,555,000 Da or 75550 kDa.
12. What releases a peptide from beads after solid-phase synthesis?
a. trifluoroacetic acid
b. dicyclohexylcarbodiimide
c. hydrofluoric acid
d. fluoroacetic acid
e. water
13. Which amino acid has the one-letter abbreviation K?
a. histidine
b. asparagine
c. alanine
d. valine
e. lysine
14. The amino termini acetylation of proteins:
a. makes these proteins negatively charged.
b. makes these proteins more resistant to degradation.
c. induces their conformation change.
d. makes these proteins hydrophobic.
e. makes these proteins less exposed to mutations.
15. Which statement about biological diversity is FALSE?
a. The plant kingdom includes species as relatively simple as algae and as complex as sequoias.
b. No species can live in seemingly hostile environments such as hot springs and glaciers.
c. Animal kingdom species range from nearly microscopic to very large.
d. Organisms such as protozoa, yeast, and bacteria are present with great diversity in water and soil.
e. Microscopic organisms can live on or within larger organisms.
16. What does an α-amino acid consist of?
a. carbonyl group, α carbon, amino group, oxygen atom, distinctive R group
b. carboxylic acid group, α carbon, amino group, hydrogen atom, distinctive R group
c. carboxylic acid group, ε carbon, nitro group, hydrogen atom
d. alcohol group, α carbon, amino group, nitrogen atom, distinctive R group, hydrogen atom
e. carboxylic acid group, δ carbon, imine radical, hydrogen atom, distinctive R group
17. Order the type of interactions by the bond strength in descending value.
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a. hydrogen bonds, covalent bonds, van der Waals interactions
b. covalent bonds, van der Waals interactions, hydrogen bonds
c. van der Waals interactions, covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds
d. covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds, van der Waals interactions
e. hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic interactions
18. What is the difference between β strands and loops?
a. Loops do not have regular, periodic structures.
b. Loops do not have hydrogen bonds.
c. Loops have a greater molecular weight.
d. Loops do not have amino acid residues.
e. Loops do not have a three-dimensional structure.
19. The base composition of the DNA includes 28% G and 26% A. How much T would be in the RNA
synthesized from this DNA template?
a. about 20%
b. 54%
c. 26%
d. 28%
e. The original data are not correct.
20. The cleavage site of thrombin is the:
a. carboxyl side of methionine.
b. carboxyl side of arginine.
c. carboxyl side of lysine and arginine residues.
d. asparagine-glycine bond.
e. amino side of cysteine.
21. How many chiral carbon atoms do ribose and deoxyribose contain in nucleic acids?
a. Ribose contains 4 chiral carbon atoms, whereas deoxyribose contains 3.
b. Ribose contains 3 chiral carbon atoms, whereas deoxyribose contains 4.
c. Both sugars contain 3 chiral carbon atoms.
d. Both sugars contain 4 chiral carbon atoms.
e. Both sugars contain no chiral carbon atoms.
22. The process of converting analytes into gas-phase ions is called:
a. polymerization.
b. isoelectric focusing.
c. ion-exchange chromatography.
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d. ionization.
e. electrophoresis.
23. What statement about prions is FALSE?
a. The infectious prions are aggregated forms of the PrP protein termed PrPSC.
b. Prions cause scrapie in sheep.
c. Prions are proteins that can assume (after infection or by other causes) a new protein structure, which
is self-propagating.
d. Mammalian prion diseases are fatal.
e. Prions are composed largely of a cellular protein called PrP, which is normally present in the liver.
24. What are the interactions that associate the two helices in α-keratin?
a. hydrogen bonds and electrostatic forces
b. van der Waals forces and covalent interactions
c. electrostatic forces and metallic bonds
d. van der Waals forces and ionic interactions
e. metallic bonds and van der Waals forces
25. The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester linkage at a break in a DNA strand is:
a. topoisomerase.
b. DNA polymerase II.
c. DNA phosphatase.
d. DNA ligase.
e. DNA polymerase I.
26. The technique that provides ionization of proteins with a high molecular weight and low volatility is:
a. gel-filtration.
b. MALDI.
c. ion-exchange.
d. molecular exclusion.
e. dialysis.
27. What statement about the gene gun technique is FALSE?
a. In this technique DNA is coated onto tungsten pellets, and the microprojectiles are shot into the
tissue at very high velocity.
b. This technique makes membranes transiently permeable to large molecules.
c. This technique affords an opportunity to develop genetically modified organisms with beneficial
characteristics.
d. This technique is an effective way of transforming plants.
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e. In this technique the velocity of microprojectiles is greater than 400 m s–1.
28. What is the nucleotide sequence on the DNA template strand that yields the CUA codon for leucine?
a. AUC
b. TAG
c. CTA
d. GAT
e. CUA
29. Current DNA sequencing commonly uses _____ base analogues.
a. fluorescent
b. radioactive
c. phosphorescent
d. cross-linked
e. photoreactive
30. An ELISA can be used for:
a. quantitative analysis.
b. size analysis.
c. protein sequencing.
d. protein conformation analysis.
e. three-dimensional structure analysis.
31. What plot type allows one to investigate the likely ϕ and ψ angles of the peptide backbone?
a. Hill
b. Lineweaver–Burk
c. Hanes–Woolf
d. Ramachandran
e. Michaelis–Menten
32. Choose the correct groups for Thr, Lys, His, Met, respectively, on the basis of general chemical
characteristics.
a. polar but uncharged; negatively charged; positively charged; hydrophobic
b. polar but uncharged; positively charged; positively charged; hydrophobic
c. positively charged; hydrophobic; polar but not charged; positively charged
d. negatively charged; hydrophobic; positively charged; polar but not charged
e. positively charged; positively charged; polar but not charged; negatively charged
33. Choose the feature of DNA structure that was NOT deduced by Watson and Crick from the DNA diffraction
patterns.
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a. Two antiparallel polynucleotide chains are coiled in a helix around a common axis.
b. The pyrimidine and purine bases lie on the inside of the helix.
c. The bases are nearly perpendicular to the axis, and adjacent bases are separated by approximately 3.4
Å.
d. Double-helical DNA can be supercoiled.
e. The diameter of the helix is about 20 Å.
34. Which amino acid forms disulfide bonds?
a. histidine
b. methionine
c. proline
d. serine
e. cysteine
35. What is the amino-terminal residue and what is the carboxyl-terminal residue in the sequence of amino acids
Gly-Tyr-Gly-Phe-Leu?
a. Leucine is N-terminal and glycine is C-terminal.
b. Glycine is N-terminal and leucine is C-terminal.
c. Tyrosine is N-terminal and leucine is C-terminal.
d. Phenylalanine is N-terminal and leucine is C-terminal.
e. There are no N-terminal and C-terminal residues in the sequences of amino acids.
36. What is the [A–]:[HA] ratio when a weak acid is in a solution one pH unit below its pKa?
a. 1:1
b. 1:10
c. 10:1
d. 2:1
e. 1:2
37. What statement about polyacrylamide gels and agarose gels is FALSE?
a. These gels have a high resolving power.
b. Agarose gels are more porous than polyacrylamide gels.
c. Agarose gels are used to resolve mixtures of fragments as large as 20 kilobases.
d. Polyacrylamide gels are used to separate mixtures of larger fragments than agarose gels can separate.
e. Bands or spots of radioactive DNA in both of these gel types can be visualized by autoradiography.
38. A polylinker site contains:
a. many closely spaced restriction enzyme sites.
b. links for antibiotic resistance.
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c. sequences allowing linkage to mRNA.
d. a sequence that allows for insertion into the host chromosome.
e. a sequence that cannot be cleaved.
39. Although the right-handed double helix is the most well-known DNA structure, DNA can also form:
a. triple strands.
b. straight chains.
c. branched chains.
d. left-handed helices.
e. tight globules.
40. What is the simplest sort of quaternary structure?
a. a monomer
b. a dimer consisting of two different subunits
c. a dimer consisting of two identical subunits
d. a trimer consisting of two identical subunits and one diverse subunit
e. a tetramer consisting of two identical subunits and diverse subunits
41. A _____ DNA molecule is more compact than its relaxed form.
a. hypochromic
b. supercoiled
c. annealed
d. spliced
e. double-helical
42. What parameter of the molecule can be determined based on time it takes for the ion of that molecule to
pass through the chamber of the TOF mass analyzer?
a. structure
b. size
c. mass
d. pI
e. pH
43. The chemical forces that contribute to the stability of the DNA due to the base stacking present in the DNA
helix are:
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. van der Waals interactions.
c. hydrophobic interactions.
d. salt bridges.
e. charge repulsive forces.
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44. Which statement about covalent bonds is INCORRECT?
a. A covalent bond is formed by the sharing of a pair of electrons between adjacent atoms.
b. If more than one electron pair is shared, then a covalent bond becomes stronger.
c. Existence of several resonance structures of nearly equal energies decreases stability of a compound.
d. Some molecules possess several patterns of covalent bonding.
e. The key properties of a bond are length and energy.
45. What will happen with a newborn animal if both copies of the gene for the regulatory protein myogenin are
disrupted?
a. The animal will be born and will not be able to move.
b. The animal dies at birth because it lacks myocardium.
c. The animal will be born with only leg muscles.
d. The animal dies at birth because it lacks functional skeletal muscle.
e. The animal will be born with amyotrophia.
46. What can be identified with the nuclear Overhauser effect?
a. pairs of protons in different locations
b. pairs of protons in close proximity
c. pairs of electrons in different locations
d. pairs of electrons in close proximity
e. exact quantity of electrons in the molecule
47. Which molecules are used as a template in translation?
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. snRNA
e. eccDNA
48. Which step is NOT included in the technique called Southern blotting?
a. hybridization of the probe with a restriction fragment having a complementary sequence
b. amplification of the restriction fragment–probe duplex
c. transfer of the mixture of restriction fragments into a membrane composed of nitrocellulose
d. exposure to a 32P-labeled DNA probe
e. visualization by autoradiography or fluorescence imaging
49. What is the name for a technique that helps to detect a particular protein by staining with a specific
antibody?
a. PCR
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b. northern blotting
c. western blotting
d. controlled termination of replication
e. Southern blotting
50. In the ribonuclease experiments performed by Anfinsen, β-mercaptoethanol reduced:
a. all incorrectly paired bonds and stabilized the protein structure.
b. all bonds and destroyed the protein structure.
c. all charged residues, and the protein was unable to take part in signaling.
d. all bonds, and the unfolded protein molecules became tangled up with one another to form
aggregates.
e. incorrectly paired disulfide bonds, allowing them to reform with the correct pairing until the most
stable conformation of the protein had been obtained.
51. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH–] in an aqueous solution with pH 9?
a. 10–9 M
b. 10–14 M
c. 105 M
d. 9 M
e. 10–5 M
52. Ribosomes are composed of:
a. DNA.
b. rRNA.
c. proteins.
d. DNA and rRNA.
e. rRNA and proteins.
53. _____ can be added prior to gel electrophoresis to fully denature proteins.
a. Coomassie blue
b. Polyacrylamide
c. SDS
d. β-mercaptoethanol
e. Cyanogen bromide
54. What is NOT included in the PCR mixture?
a. the target sequence
b. the primers
c. reverse transcriptase
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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which statement about DNA structure is INCORRECT?
a. It is a branched polymer with a flexible backbone.
b. The DNA backbone is built of repeating sugar–phosphate units.
c. Each DNA strand has directionality due to identical orientation of the sugar–phosphate units.
d. Each sugar is connected to two phosphate groups through different linkages.
e. Its structure is a double helix composed of two intertwined strands.
2. What method can be used to separate proteins only by their charge?
a. gel-filtration chromatography
b. affinity chromatography
c. gel electrophoresis
d. ion-exchange chromatography
e. dialysis
3. pUC plasmids are useful for screening cells that contain recombinant DNA because they contain the _____
gene.
a. β-galactosidase
b. tetracycline resistance
c. green fluorescent protein
d. luciferase
e. DNA polymerase
4. Why are free interactions of water molecules in bulk water more favorable than more ordered interactions
with nonpolar compounds?
a. The total entropy in such interactions increases because the Gibbs free energy is positive.
b. The total entropy in such interactions decreases because the Gibbs free energy is negative.
c. The enthalpy of the ordered state is lower than the enthalpy of the bulk state.
d. The total entropy in such interactions increases because the Gibbs free energy is negative.
e. The total entropy in such interactions decreases because the Gibbs free energy is positive.
5. The lacZα gene encodes the fragment of the:
a. α-galactosidase.
b. carbohydrase.
c. β-galactosidase.
d. α-amylase.
e. β-amylase.
6. What isomers of amino acids are found in proteins and what absolute configuration do they have?
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a. L isomer; R absolute configuration
b. D and L isomers; R absolute configuration
c. L isomer; S absolute configuration
d. D isomer; S absolute configuration
e. L and D isomers; S absolute configuration
7. What process generates different mRNA that are templates for different forms of a protein without requiring
a gene for each protein?
a. transcription
b. exon shuffling
c. degenerate splicing
d. alternative splicing
e. recombination
8. What technique can be used to determine the mass-to-charge ratio of a molecule?
a. Edman degradation
b. affinity chromatography
c. diagonal electrophoresis
d. MALDI-TOF
e. SDS-PAGE
9. Each three-base codon encodes a specific:
a. DNA nucleotide.
b. mRNA nucleotide.
c. tRNA nucleotide.
d. rRNA nucleotide.
e. amino acid.
10. What DNA sequence contains a palindromic inverted repeat such as those recognized by restriction
enzymes? (Note: Only one strand is shown.)
a. CAGTCC
b. GCATCC
c. CGATTAGC
d. GAGAGAGA
e. GCATATGC
11. A protein with a molecular weight of 75 550 g mol–1 has a mass of:
a. 75,550 Da or 755.5 kDa.
b. 7555 Da or 75.55 kDa.
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c. 75,550 Da or 75.55 kDa.
d. 755,500 Da or 7.555 kDa.
e. 7,555,000 Da or 75550 kDa.
12. What releases a peptide from beads after solid-phase synthesis?
a. trifluoroacetic acid
b. dicyclohexylcarbodiimide
c. hydrofluoric acid
d. fluoroacetic acid
e. water
13. Which amino acid has the one-letter abbreviation K?
a. histidine
b. asparagine
c. alanine
d. valine
e. lysine
14. The amino termini acetylation of proteins:
a. makes these proteins negatively charged.
b. makes these proteins more resistant to degradation.
c. induces their conformation change.
d. makes these proteins hydrophobic.
e. makes these proteins less exposed to mutations.
15. Which statement about biological diversity is FALSE?
a. The plant kingdom includes species as relatively simple as algae and as complex as sequoias.
b. No species can live in seemingly hostile environments such as hot springs and glaciers.
c. Animal kingdom species range from nearly microscopic to very large.
d. Organisms such as protozoa, yeast, and bacteria are present with great diversity in water and soil.
e. Microscopic organisms can live on or within larger organisms.
16. What does an α-amino acid consist of?
a. carbonyl group, α carbon, amino group, oxygen atom, distinctive R group
b. carboxylic acid group, α carbon, amino group, hydrogen atom, distinctive R group
c. carboxylic acid group, ε carbon, nitro group, hydrogen atom
d. alcohol group, α carbon, amino group, nitrogen atom, distinctive R group, hydrogen atom
e. carboxylic acid group, δ carbon, imine radical, hydrogen atom, distinctive R group
17. Order the type of interactions by the bond strength in descending value.
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a. hydrogen bonds, covalent bonds, van der Waals interactions
b. covalent bonds, van der Waals interactions, hydrogen bonds
c. van der Waals interactions, covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds
d. covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds, van der Waals interactions
e. hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic interactions
18. What is the difference between β strands and loops?
a. Loops do not have regular, periodic structures.
b. Loops do not have hydrogen bonds.
c. Loops have a greater molecular weight.
d. Loops do not have amino acid residues.
e. Loops do not have a three-dimensional structure.
19. The base composition of the DNA includes 28% G and 26% A. How much T would be in the RNA
synthesized from this DNA template?
a. about 20%
b. 54%
c. 26%
d. 28%
e. The original data are not correct.
20. The cleavage site of thrombin is the:
a. carboxyl side of methionine.
b. carboxyl side of arginine.
c. carboxyl side of lysine and arginine residues.
d. asparagine-glycine bond.
e. amino side of cysteine.
21. How many chiral carbon atoms do ribose and deoxyribose contain in nucleic acids?
a. Ribose contains 4 chiral carbon atoms, whereas deoxyribose contains 3.
b. Ribose contains 3 chiral carbon atoms, whereas deoxyribose contains 4.
c. Both sugars contain 3 chiral carbon atoms.
d. Both sugars contain 4 chiral carbon atoms.
e. Both sugars contain no chiral carbon atoms.
22. The process of converting analytes into gas-phase ions is called:
a. polymerization.
b. isoelectric focusing.
c. ion-exchange chromatography.
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d. ionization.
e. electrophoresis.
23. What statement about prions is FALSE?
a. The infectious prions are aggregated forms of the PrP protein termed PrPSC.
b. Prions cause scrapie in sheep.
c. Prions are proteins that can assume (after infection or by other causes) a new protein structure, which
is self-propagating.
d. Mammalian prion diseases are fatal.
e. Prions are composed largely of a cellular protein called PrP, which is normally present in the liver.
24. What are the interactions that associate the two helices in α-keratin?
a. hydrogen bonds and electrostatic forces
b. van der Waals forces and covalent interactions
c. electrostatic forces and metallic bonds
d. van der Waals forces and ionic interactions
e. metallic bonds and van der Waals forces
25. The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester linkage at a break in a DNA strand is:
a. topoisomerase.
b. DNA polymerase II.
c. DNA phosphatase.
d. DNA ligase.
e. DNA polymerase I.
26. The technique that provides ionization of proteins with a high molecular weight and low volatility is:
a. gel-filtration.
b. MALDI.
c. ion-exchange.
d. molecular exclusion.
e. dialysis.
27. What statement about the gene gun technique is FALSE?
a. In this technique DNA is coated onto tungsten pellets, and the microprojectiles are shot into the
tissue at very high velocity.
b. This technique makes membranes transiently permeable to large molecules.
c. This technique affords an opportunity to develop genetically modified organisms with beneficial
characteristics.
d. This technique is an effective way of transforming plants.
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e. In this technique the velocity of microprojectiles is greater than 400 m s–1.
28. What is the nucleotide sequence on the DNA template strand that yields the CUA codon for leucine?
a. AUC
b. TAG
c. CTA
d. GAT
e. CUA
29. Current DNA sequencing commonly uses _____ base analogues.
a. fluorescent
b. radioactive
c. phosphorescent
d. cross-linked
e. photoreactive
30. An ELISA can be used for:
a. quantitative analysis.
b. size analysis.
c. protein sequencing.
d. protein conformation analysis.
e. three-dimensional structure analysis.
31. What plot type allows one to investigate the likely ϕ and ψ angles of the peptide backbone?
a. Hill
b. Lineweaver–Burk
c. Hanes–Woolf
d. Ramachandran
e. Michaelis–Menten
32. Choose the correct groups for Thr, Lys, His, Met, respectively, on the basis of general chemical
characteristics.
a. polar but uncharged; negatively charged; positively charged; hydrophobic
b. polar but uncharged; positively charged; positively charged; hydrophobic
c. positively charged; hydrophobic; polar but not charged; positively charged
d. negatively charged; hydrophobic; positively charged; polar but not charged
e. positively charged; positively charged; polar but not charged; negatively charged
33. Choose the feature of DNA structure that was NOT deduced by Watson and Crick from the DNA diffraction
patterns.
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a. Two antiparallel polynucleotide chains are coiled in a helix around a common axis.
b. The pyrimidine and purine bases lie on the inside of the helix.
c. The bases are nearly perpendicular to the axis, and adjacent bases are separated by approximately 3.4
Å.
d. Double-helical DNA can be supercoiled.
e. The diameter of the helix is about 20 Å.
34. Which amino acid forms disulfide bonds?
a. histidine
b. methionine
c. proline
d. serine
e. cysteine
35. What is the amino-terminal residue and what is the carboxyl-terminal residue in the sequence of amino acids
Gly-Tyr-Gly-Phe-Leu?
a. Leucine is N-terminal and glycine is C-terminal.
b. Glycine is N-terminal and leucine is C-terminal.
c. Tyrosine is N-terminal and leucine is C-terminal.
d. Phenylalanine is N-terminal and leucine is C-terminal.
e. There are no N-terminal and C-terminal residues in the sequences of amino acids.
36. What is the [A–]:[HA] ratio when a weak acid is in a solution one pH unit below its pKa?
a. 1:1
b. 1:10
c. 10:1
d. 2:1
e. 1:2
37. What statement about polyacrylamide gels and agarose gels is FALSE?
a. These gels have a high resolving power.
b. Agarose gels are more porous than polyacrylamide gels.
c. Agarose gels are used to resolve mixtures of fragments as large as 20 kilobases.
d. Polyacrylamide gels are used to separate mixtures of larger fragments than agarose gels can separate.
e. Bands or spots of radioactive DNA in both of these gel types can be visualized by autoradiography.
38. A polylinker site contains:
a. many closely spaced restriction enzyme sites.
b. links for antibiotic resistance.
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c. sequences allowing linkage to mRNA.
d. a sequence that allows for insertion into the host chromosome.
e. a sequence that cannot be cleaved.
39. Although the right-handed double helix is the most well-known DNA structure, DNA can also form:
a. triple strands.
b. straight chains.
c. branched chains.
d. left-handed helices.
e. tight globules.
40. What is the simplest sort of quaternary structure?
a. a monomer
b. a dimer consisting of two different subunits
c. a dimer consisting of two identical subunits
d. a trimer consisting of two identical subunits and one diverse subunit
e. a tetramer consisting of two identical subunits and diverse subunits
41. A _____ DNA molecule is more compact than its relaxed form.
a. hypochromic
b. supercoiled
c. annealed
d. spliced
e. double-helical
42. What parameter of the molecule can be determined based on time it takes for the ion of that molecule to
pass through the chamber of the TOF mass analyzer?
a. structure
b. size
c. mass
d. pI
e. pH
43. The chemical forces that contribute to the stability of the DNA due to the base stacking present in the DNA
helix are:
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. van der Waals interactions.
c. hydrophobic interactions.
d. salt bridges.
e. charge repulsive forces.
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44. Which statement about covalent bonds is INCORRECT?
a. A covalent bond is formed by the sharing of a pair of electrons between adjacent atoms.
b. If more than one electron pair is shared, then a covalent bond becomes stronger.
c. Existence of several resonance structures of nearly equal energies decreases stability of a compound.
d. Some molecules possess several patterns of covalent bonding.
e. The key properties of a bond are length and energy.
45. What will happen with a newborn animal if both copies of the gene for the regulatory protein myogenin are
disrupted?
a. The animal will be born and will not be able to move.
b. The animal dies at birth because it lacks myocardium.
c. The animal will be born with only leg muscles.
d. The animal dies at birth because it lacks functional skeletal muscle.
e. The animal will be born with amyotrophia.
46. What can be identified with the nuclear Overhauser effect?
a. pairs of protons in different locations
b. pairs of protons in close proximity
c. pairs of electrons in different locations
d. pairs of electrons in close proximity
e. exact quantity of electrons in the molecule
47. Which molecules are used as a template in translation?
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. snRNA
e. eccDNA
48. Which step is NOT included in the technique called Southern blotting?
a. hybridization of the probe with a restriction fragment having a complementary sequence
b. amplification of the restriction fragment–probe duplex
c. transfer of the mixture of restriction fragments into a membrane composed of nitrocellulose
d. exposure to a 32P-labeled DNA probe
e. visualization by autoradiography or fluorescence imaging
49. What is the name for a technique that helps to detect a particular protein by staining with a specific
antibody?
a. PCR
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b. northern blotting
c. western blotting
d. controlled termination of replication
e. Southern blotting
50. In the ribonuclease experiments performed by Anfinsen, β-mercaptoethanol reduced:
a. all incorrectly paired bonds and stabilized the protein structure.
b. all bonds and destroyed the protein structure.
c. all charged residues, and the protein was unable to take part in signaling.
d. all bonds, and the unfolded protein molecules became tangled up with one another to form
aggregates.
e. incorrectly paired disulfide bonds, allowing them to reform with the correct pairing until the most
stable conformation of the protein had been obtained.
51. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH–] in an aqueous solution with pH 9?
a. 10–9 M
b. 10–14 M
c. 105 M
d. 9 M
e. 10–5 M
52. Ribosomes are composed of:
a. DNA.
b. rRNA.
c. proteins.
d. DNA and rRNA.
e. rRNA and proteins.
53. _____ can be added prior to gel electrophoresis to fully denature proteins.
a. Coomassie blue
b. Polyacrylamide
c. SDS
d. β-mercaptoethanol
e. Cyanogen bromide
54. What is NOT included in the PCR mixture?
a. the target sequence
b. the primers
c. reverse transcriptase
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