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NSG 6420 WEEK 9 QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE ANSWERS

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NSG 6420 WEEK 9 QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE ANSWERS

Institution
NSG 6420
Course
NSG 6420

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The most common neurological cause of seizures in an older adult is:


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Stroke




Mr. Marshall is a 72-year-old man, with a history of hypertension, COPD and moderate
dementia, who presents with 4 days of increased confusion, nighttime restlessness,
visual hallucinations, and urinary incontinence. His physical exam is unremarkable
except for tachypnea, a mildly enlarged prostate, inattentiveness, and a worsening of
his MMSE score from a baseline of 18 to 12 today. Mr. Marshall's presentation is most
consistent with an acute delirium (acute change in cognition, perceptual
derangement, waxing and waning consciousness, and inattention). What is the most
likely diagnosis to frequently cause acute delirium in patients with dementia?


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, Urinary tract infection




A 65-year-old male complains of a headache that feels "like a knife is cutting into his
head." He also reports feeling right-sided scalp and facial pain and "seeing double" at
times. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. His medications include
beta blocker, statin drug, and an ACE inhibitor. On physical examination, you note
palpable tenderness over the right side of the forehead. There are no neurological
deficits. Vision is 20/20 with lenses. No weakness of extremities. CN II to XII are intact.
The history corresponds to which of the following disorders?


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Giant cell arteritis




Mr. Marshall was administered the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE). Which of the
following statements pertaining to this tool is a true statement?


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Because Mr. Marshall has symptoms of change of mental status you are not
screening




An older male patient is experiencing acute onset of right-sided weakness, slurred
speech, and confusion. What should the nurse practitioner do promptly?


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Institution
NSG 6420
Course
NSG 6420

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