Test Bank for Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and
Health Care, 1e by Theresa A. Beery (All Chapters
Answer at the end of each Chapter)
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Cytoplasm
D. Plasma membrane
____ 2. Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics?
A. The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people.
B. Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles.
C. Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females.
D. One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother and one is inherited from the
father.
____ 3. What is the correct interpretation of the statement “the HFE gene locus is 6p21”?
A. Both alleles of the HFE gene are equally expressed.
B. The HFE gene is inherited from the paternal chromosome line.
C. The HFE gene alleles are located on the “short arms” of chromosome number 6.
D. There is a somatic cell mutation involving gene allele damage on chromosome 6.
____ 4. What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand?
A. Linking the nucleotides into a strand
B. Holding complementary strands together
C. Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine
D. Preventing the separation of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA
____ 5. What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different expression of
the trait coded for by that gene?
A. Alleles
B. Bases
C. Centromeres
D. Diploids
____ 6. What percentage of bases in a stretch of double-stranded DNA that contains 30% guanine (G) bases
would be adenine (A)?
A. 70%
B. 60%
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, C. 30%
D. 20%
____ 7. What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used
to determine whether chromosome numbers, structures, and banding patterns are normal?
A. Pedigree
B. Phenotype
C. Karyotype
D. Autosome
____ 8. What would be the sequence of DNA that is complementary to a DNA section with the base
sequence of GGTCAATCCTTAG?
A. GATTCCTAACTGG
B. TTGACCGAAGGCT
C. AACTGGCTTCCGA
D. CCAGTTAGGAATC
____ 9. Which of these complementary base pairs form the strongest or “tightest” association?
A. Adenine and thymine
B. Cytosine and guanine
C. Guanine and thymine
D. Cytosine and Adenine
____ 10. What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
A. The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B. Activity stops and the cell “sleeps.”
C. All DNA is completely replicated.
D. Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.
____ 11. Which chromosome number represents the euploid state for normal human somatic cells?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 47
D. 48
____ 12. How does the proteome differ from the genome?
A. The proteome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
B. The genome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
C. The proteome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the
genome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
D. The genome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the
proteome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
____ 13. What is the most outstanding feature of a mature haploid cell?
A. It is usually homozygous.
B. The sex chromosomes are missing.
C. Only one chromosome of each pair is present.
D. DNA synthesis occurs after mitosis instead of before.
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,____ 14. At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
____ 15. Which statement about G0 is true?
A. Hyperplastic growth in place of hypertrophic growth
B. Performance of specific differentiated functions
C. Initiation and completion of nucleokinesis
D. Replication of DNA
____ 16. What is the result of DNA replication?
A. Formation of two new daughter cells
B. Formation of two identical sets of DNA
C. Disappearance of the original parent cell
D. Activation and attachment of spindle fibers
____ 17. Which statement regarding chromosome structure or function is true?
A. The chromatids of any single chromosome are known as “sister chromatids.”
B. The genes located on the telomeres of chromosomes are identical to the genes in
the centromeres.
C. Immediately before the mitosis phase of cell division, the chromosomes of all
somatic cells are haploid.
D. A specific gene allele on one chromosome has a complementary allele on the other
chromosome of a pair.
____ 18. Why does a person with normal chromosomes only have two alleles for any single gene trait?
A. A minimum of two alleles is required for the expression of monogenic traits.
B. When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, only the dominant allele is
expressed and the recessive allele is silent.
C. One allele for the monogenic trait is on the paternally derived chromosome and the
other allele is on the maternally derived chromosome.
D. Expression of more than two alleles of any single gene trait results in enhanced
expression of recessive alleles and suppressed expression of dominant alleles.
____ 19. Under what normal condition are genotype and phenotype always the same?
A. Trisomy of alleles
B. Triploidy of alleles
C. Homozygosity of alleles
D. Heterozygosity of alleles
____ 20. What would be the expected result of a drug that affected a particular tissue by causing new DNA to
form with covalent bonds instead of hydrogen bonds?
A. None of the cells in the affected tissue would be able to leave G0 and enter the cell
cycle.
B. Replication of DNA would result in identical DNA strands instead of
complementary strands.
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, C. Mitosis of cells in the tissue would result in the production of three new daughter
cells instead of just two.
D. The new cells that formed within this tissue would not be able to complete the next
round of mitosis successfully.
____ 21. How does the enzyme DNA ligase contribute to DNA replication?
A. Unwinds the double helix and separates the double-stranded DNA
B. Creates a “nick” in the DNA supercoils allowing them to straighten before
replication
C. Initiates DNA synthesis in multiple sites down the strand making the process more
efficient
D. Connects and links the individual pieces of newly synthesized DNA to form a
single strand
____ 22. What are the expected expressed blood types of children born to a mother who is B/O for blood type
and a father who is A/B for blood type?
A. 25% A, 25% B, 25% O, 25% AB
B. 25% A, 50% B, 0% O, 25% AB
C. 50% A, 25% B, 25% O, 0% AB
D. 50% A, 25% B, 0% O, 25% AB
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Health Care, 1e by Theresa A. Beery (All Chapters
Answer at the end of each Chapter)
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Cytoplasm
D. Plasma membrane
____ 2. Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics?
A. The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people.
B. Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles.
C. Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females.
D. One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother and one is inherited from the
father.
____ 3. What is the correct interpretation of the statement “the HFE gene locus is 6p21”?
A. Both alleles of the HFE gene are equally expressed.
B. The HFE gene is inherited from the paternal chromosome line.
C. The HFE gene alleles are located on the “short arms” of chromosome number 6.
D. There is a somatic cell mutation involving gene allele damage on chromosome 6.
____ 4. What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand?
A. Linking the nucleotides into a strand
B. Holding complementary strands together
C. Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine
D. Preventing the separation of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA
____ 5. What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different expression of
the trait coded for by that gene?
A. Alleles
B. Bases
C. Centromeres
D. Diploids
____ 6. What percentage of bases in a stretch of double-stranded DNA that contains 30% guanine (G) bases
would be adenine (A)?
A. 70%
B. 60%
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, C. 30%
D. 20%
____ 7. What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used
to determine whether chromosome numbers, structures, and banding patterns are normal?
A. Pedigree
B. Phenotype
C. Karyotype
D. Autosome
____ 8. What would be the sequence of DNA that is complementary to a DNA section with the base
sequence of GGTCAATCCTTAG?
A. GATTCCTAACTGG
B. TTGACCGAAGGCT
C. AACTGGCTTCCGA
D. CCAGTTAGGAATC
____ 9. Which of these complementary base pairs form the strongest or “tightest” association?
A. Adenine and thymine
B. Cytosine and guanine
C. Guanine and thymine
D. Cytosine and Adenine
____ 10. What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
A. The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B. Activity stops and the cell “sleeps.”
C. All DNA is completely replicated.
D. Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.
____ 11. Which chromosome number represents the euploid state for normal human somatic cells?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 47
D. 48
____ 12. How does the proteome differ from the genome?
A. The proteome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
B. The genome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
C. The proteome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the
genome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
D. The genome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the
proteome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
____ 13. What is the most outstanding feature of a mature haploid cell?
A. It is usually homozygous.
B. The sex chromosomes are missing.
C. Only one chromosome of each pair is present.
D. DNA synthesis occurs after mitosis instead of before.
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,____ 14. At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
____ 15. Which statement about G0 is true?
A. Hyperplastic growth in place of hypertrophic growth
B. Performance of specific differentiated functions
C. Initiation and completion of nucleokinesis
D. Replication of DNA
____ 16. What is the result of DNA replication?
A. Formation of two new daughter cells
B. Formation of two identical sets of DNA
C. Disappearance of the original parent cell
D. Activation and attachment of spindle fibers
____ 17. Which statement regarding chromosome structure or function is true?
A. The chromatids of any single chromosome are known as “sister chromatids.”
B. The genes located on the telomeres of chromosomes are identical to the genes in
the centromeres.
C. Immediately before the mitosis phase of cell division, the chromosomes of all
somatic cells are haploid.
D. A specific gene allele on one chromosome has a complementary allele on the other
chromosome of a pair.
____ 18. Why does a person with normal chromosomes only have two alleles for any single gene trait?
A. A minimum of two alleles is required for the expression of monogenic traits.
B. When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, only the dominant allele is
expressed and the recessive allele is silent.
C. One allele for the monogenic trait is on the paternally derived chromosome and the
other allele is on the maternally derived chromosome.
D. Expression of more than two alleles of any single gene trait results in enhanced
expression of recessive alleles and suppressed expression of dominant alleles.
____ 19. Under what normal condition are genotype and phenotype always the same?
A. Trisomy of alleles
B. Triploidy of alleles
C. Homozygosity of alleles
D. Heterozygosity of alleles
____ 20. What would be the expected result of a drug that affected a particular tissue by causing new DNA to
form with covalent bonds instead of hydrogen bonds?
A. None of the cells in the affected tissue would be able to leave G0 and enter the cell
cycle.
B. Replication of DNA would result in identical DNA strands instead of
complementary strands.
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, C. Mitosis of cells in the tissue would result in the production of three new daughter
cells instead of just two.
D. The new cells that formed within this tissue would not be able to complete the next
round of mitosis successfully.
____ 21. How does the enzyme DNA ligase contribute to DNA replication?
A. Unwinds the double helix and separates the double-stranded DNA
B. Creates a “nick” in the DNA supercoils allowing them to straighten before
replication
C. Initiates DNA synthesis in multiple sites down the strand making the process more
efficient
D. Connects and links the individual pieces of newly synthesized DNA to form a
single strand
____ 22. What are the expected expressed blood types of children born to a mother who is B/O for blood type
and a father who is A/B for blood type?
A. 25% A, 25% B, 25% O, 25% AB
B. 25% A, 50% B, 0% O, 25% AB
C. 50% A, 25% B, 25% O, 0% AB
D. 50% A, 25% B, 0% O, 25% AB
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