NURS 6521 Advanced Pharmacology Final
Exam 2026/2027 | Actual Questions with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Grade A Study Review
1. A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and
prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse
should tell him which of the following?
A. "You should take this medication with a high-fat meal for best results."
B. "You might find that your face becomes flushed, or you get a headache after taking
Viagra."
C. "This medication will increase your blood pressure, so monitor it closely."
D. "You can take this medication as often as needed, up to three times daily."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sildenafil commonly causes vasodilation-related adverse effects including
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facial flushing and headache. It should be taken on an empty stomach, is not to be used
with nitrates, and is typically taken no more than once daily.
2. A patient takes etoposide for a testicular tumor refractory treatment. The nursing
assessment reveals that he is also taking warfarin. The nurse must carefully monitor
which of the following?
A. Elevated prothrombin time
B. Decreased platelet count
C. Increased bleeding time
D. Elevated aPTT
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Etoposide can increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, leading to
elevated prothrombin time and INR. Close monitoring of coagulation parameters is
essential to prevent bleeding complications.
3. A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse
will instruct the patient:
A. to take the medication only when symptoms are present
B. to complete the entire course of drug therapy
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C. to stop taking the medication once symptoms resolve
D. to double the dose if a dose is missed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Completing the entire course of antibiotics is essential to ensure eradication
of the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
4. Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for psychological and physiologic
abuse. In an emergency, a Schedule II drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written
prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be
provided within 72 hours with the words "authorization for emergency dispensing"
written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription
must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates.
These are scheduled drugs:
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have accepted medical use but high abuse potential. They
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require written prescriptions (with limited emergency telephone allowances) and
cannot be refilled.
5. A 16-year-old boy has been prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal
allergy. To maximize the drug's therapeutic effects, which of the following will the nurse
include in instructions to the patient?
A. "Use this medication only when you are having active symptoms."
B. "Take the drug for one whole week before coming in contact with allergens."
C. "This medication works best if you use it every other day."
D. "You should feel immediate relief after the first dose."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer that requires consistent use for 1-2 weeks
to achieve full therapeutic effect. It is used for prophylaxis, not acute symptom relief.
6. A woman is receiving magnesium sulfate for intrapartum eclampsia. The patient is
sweating, and her BP is 88/50. The serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL. The nurse will
interpret these manifestations as:
A. Expected therapeutic effects
B. Magnesium sulfate toxicity