NR603 Week 2 Quiz
Mental Health & Reproductive Health
2026/2027 | Newly Released | Complete Guide
50 Verified Questions and Answers with Rationales
Section One: Mental Health Disorders & Psychopharmacology (25 questions)
Q1: A 34-year-old patient presents with a persistent low mood, loss of interest in activities,
fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. She reports these symptoms have been present nearly
every day for the past three months. When asked about the duration of the depressive episode,
what is the minimum time frame required to meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Major
Depressive Disorder?
A. Two weeks [CORRECT]
B. One week
C. Four weeks
D. Two months
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is two weeks because the DSM-5 explicitly requires that at least five
depressive symptoms, including either depressed mood or anhedonia, be present during the same
2-week period to diagnose MDD.
,Q2: You are evaluating a 28-year-old graduate student who reports significant anxiety regarding
her upcoming comprehensive exams. She describes excessive worry, muscle tension, and
restlessness occurring more days than not for the last six months. She notes that this worry is
difficult to control and is interfering with her sleep. Which of the following is the first-line
pharmacologic treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro) [CORRECT]
C. Quetiapine (Seroquel)
D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because SSRIs like escitalopram are considered the first-line
pharmacological treatment for GAD due to their favorable safety profile and effectiveness,
whereas benzodiazepines are generally second-line or for short-term use only.
Q3: A 42-year-old male presents with a history of episodes characterized by elevated mood,
decreased need for sleep, and pressured speech lasting for one week. He also reports a previous
episode of depression that lasted two months. He is currently asymptomatic but asks about his
long-term prognosis. Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?
A. Cyclothymic Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder [CORRECT]
D. Major Depressive Disorder, Recurrent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is Bipolar I Disorder because the patient has experienced a full
manic episode (lasting one week), which is the defining feature of Bipolar I, regardless of
whether a major depressive episode has also occurred.
, Q4: A patient with Bipolar Disorder is currently stable on Lithium. During a follow-up visit, he
complains of fine hand tremors, mild nausea, and frequent urination. You are concerned about
potential toxicity or common side effects. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor to
ensure the medication is within a therapeutic range?
A. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C. Serum Lithium Level [CORRECT]
D. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because monitoring serum lithium levels is essential to ensure
the drug is within the narrow therapeutic window and to prevent potential toxicity, which can
present with the neurological and GI symptoms described.
Q5: You are seeing a 30-year-old female veteran who was involved in a motor vehicle accident
three months ago. She reports recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of the crash, and severe
hypervigilance. She avoids driving or riding in cars. Which screening tool would be most
appropriate to administer to assess the severity of her symptoms?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. PCL-5 (PTSD Checklist for DSM-5) [CORRECT]
D. CAGE questionnaire
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is the PCL-5 because this self-report measure is specifically
designed to assess symptoms of PTSD according to DSM-5 criteria, unlike the PHQ-9 or GAD-7
which screen for depression and anxiety respectively.
Mental Health & Reproductive Health
2026/2027 | Newly Released | Complete Guide
50 Verified Questions and Answers with Rationales
Section One: Mental Health Disorders & Psychopharmacology (25 questions)
Q1: A 34-year-old patient presents with a persistent low mood, loss of interest in activities,
fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. She reports these symptoms have been present nearly
every day for the past three months. When asked about the duration of the depressive episode,
what is the minimum time frame required to meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Major
Depressive Disorder?
A. Two weeks [CORRECT]
B. One week
C. Four weeks
D. Two months
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is two weeks because the DSM-5 explicitly requires that at least five
depressive symptoms, including either depressed mood or anhedonia, be present during the same
2-week period to diagnose MDD.
,Q2: You are evaluating a 28-year-old graduate student who reports significant anxiety regarding
her upcoming comprehensive exams. She describes excessive worry, muscle tension, and
restlessness occurring more days than not for the last six months. She notes that this worry is
difficult to control and is interfering with her sleep. Which of the following is the first-line
pharmacologic treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro) [CORRECT]
C. Quetiapine (Seroquel)
D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because SSRIs like escitalopram are considered the first-line
pharmacological treatment for GAD due to their favorable safety profile and effectiveness,
whereas benzodiazepines are generally second-line or for short-term use only.
Q3: A 42-year-old male presents with a history of episodes characterized by elevated mood,
decreased need for sleep, and pressured speech lasting for one week. He also reports a previous
episode of depression that lasted two months. He is currently asymptomatic but asks about his
long-term prognosis. Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?
A. Cyclothymic Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder [CORRECT]
D. Major Depressive Disorder, Recurrent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is Bipolar I Disorder because the patient has experienced a full
manic episode (lasting one week), which is the defining feature of Bipolar I, regardless of
whether a major depressive episode has also occurred.
, Q4: A patient with Bipolar Disorder is currently stable on Lithium. During a follow-up visit, he
complains of fine hand tremors, mild nausea, and frequent urination. You are concerned about
potential toxicity or common side effects. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor to
ensure the medication is within a therapeutic range?
A. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C. Serum Lithium Level [CORRECT]
D. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because monitoring serum lithium levels is essential to ensure
the drug is within the narrow therapeutic window and to prevent potential toxicity, which can
present with the neurological and GI symptoms described.
Q5: You are seeing a 30-year-old female veteran who was involved in a motor vehicle accident
three months ago. She reports recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of the crash, and severe
hypervigilance. She avoids driving or riding in cars. Which screening tool would be most
appropriate to administer to assess the severity of her symptoms?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. PCL-5 (PTSD Checklist for DSM-5) [CORRECT]
D. CAGE questionnaire
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is the PCL-5 because this self-report measure is specifically
designed to assess symptoms of PTSD according to DSM-5 criteria, unlike the PHQ-9 or GAD-7
which screen for depression and anxiety respectively.
