Air Methods Critical Care Exam Prep IBSC
FP-C CCP-C Certification Actual Exam
2026/2027 with Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam-Style Questions | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Q1: A 58-year-old patient post-ROSC has a core temperature of 34.2°C. According to targeted
temperature management guidelines, what is the priority intervention?
A. Actively rewarm to 37°C within 60 minutes
B. Administer warmed crystalloid at 43°C to achieve normothermia rapidly
C. Maintain temperature between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours [CORRECT]
D. Initiate surface cooling to achieve 30°C for neuroprotection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because post-cardiac arrest targeted temperature management recommends
maintaining a core temperature between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours to improve neurological
outcomes.
Q2: During RSI, a patient receives succinylcholine and etomidate. Shortly after intubation, the patient
develops peaked T-waves and widened QRS complexes. What is the most likely cause?
A. Anaphylaxis to etomidate
B. Vagal response to laryngoscopy
C. Hyperkalemia secondary to succinylcholine administration [CORRECT]
D. Sympathetic surge from inadequate sedation
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Correct because succinylcholine can cause hyperkalemia, particularly in patients with
burns, crush injuries, or neuromuscular disease, manifesting as peaked T-waves and widened QRS
complexes.
Q3: A 42-year-old diver surfaces rapidly and develops joint pain, pruritus, and a mottled rash. What is
the definitive treatment?
A. High-flow oxygen and surface observation for 24 hours
B. Immediate recompression using Table 5A
C. Recompression in a hyperbaric chamber per US Navy Treatment Table 6 [CORRECT]
D. Administration of corticosteroids and antihistamines only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because decompression sickness requires definitive recompression therapy, with
US Navy Treatment Table 6 being the standard protocol for Type II DCS.
Q4: According to Boyle's Law, what happens to the volume of a pneumothorax as altitude increases?
A. Volume decreases proportionally to altitude gain
B. Volume remains constant regardless of altitude
C. Volume expands as ambient pressure decreases [CORRECT]
D. Volume is only affected by temperature changes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Boyle's Law states that gas volume is inversely proportional to pressure;
as altitude increases and ambient pressure decreases, trapped gas volumes expand.
Q5: A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of E2, V2, M4 is being transported. What is the total
GCS score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8 [CORRECT]
D. 9
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the GCS is calculated by adding Eye (2) + Verbal (2) + Motor (4), which
equals 8, indicating severe head injury.
Q6: A 34-week pregnant patient presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and blood
pressure of 172/110 mmHg. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?
A. Labetalol 20 mg IV to lower blood pressure below 140/90 mmHg
B. Hydralazine 10 mg IV as the first-line antihypertensive
,C. Magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV loading dose for seizure prophylaxis [CORRECT]
D. Nifedipine 30 mg PO for rapid blood pressure control
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in
preeclampsia/eclampsia, administered as a 4-6 gram IV loading dose followed by maintenance
infusion.
Q7: A ventilator is set in assist-control volume mode with tidal volume 500 mL, rate 14, PEEP 5
cmH2O, and FiO2 0.40. The patient's plateau pressure is 32 cmH2O. What adjustment is indicated?
A. Increase tidal volume to 650 mL to improve ventilation
B. Increase PEEP to 10 cmH2O to recruit alveoli
C. Decrease tidal volume to protect against ventilator-induced lung injury [CORRECT]
D. Increase respiratory rate to 20 to compensate for low tidal volume
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because plateau pressures exceeding 30 cmH2O increase the risk of
ventilator-induced lung injury; tidal volume should be reduced to achieve plateau pressure below 30
cmH2O while maintaining appropriate minute ventilation.
Q8: In a patient with suspected Stanford Type A aortic dissection, what is the priority intervention
during critical care transport?
A. Initiate thrombolytic therapy to dissolve the dissection flap
B. Administer beta-blockade and maintain systolic BP 100-120 mmHg
C. Control heart rate and blood pressure while expediting surgical intervention [CORRECT]
D. Insert an intra-aortic balloon pump for afterload reduction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Stanford Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta and require
emergent surgical repair; transport priority is heart rate and blood pressure control to prevent rupture
while expediting definitive care.
Q9: A patient presents with pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and decreased bowel
sounds after an overdose. Which antidote is indicated?
A. Flumazenil 0.2 mg IV
B. Naloxone 0.4-2 mg IV
C. Naloxone 2-4 mg IV with repeat dosing as needed [CORRECT]
D. Atropine 1 mg IV
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Correct because the presentation of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and decreased
bowel sounds is classic for opioid overdose, and naloxone is the specific antidote with initial dosing of
0.4-2 mg IV repeated as needed.
Q10: According to Dalton's Law, what is the primary concern regarding oxygen availability at altitude?
A. The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere decreases significantly
B. Nitrogen displaces oxygen at high altitudes
C. The partial pressure of oxygen decreases as total barometric pressure decreases [CORRECT]
D. Oxygen molecules expand and become less available for diffusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Dalton's Law states that the partial pressure of a gas is proportional to its
percentage in the mixture and the total pressure; as altitude increases and barometric pressure
drops, the partial pressure of oxygen decreases despite the percentage remaining 21%.
Q11: A trauma patient has received 6 units of PRBCs, 6 units FFP, and 6 units platelets. According to
damage control resuscitation principles, what ratio has been achieved?
A. 2:1:1
B. 3:2:1
C. 1:1:1 [CORRECT]
D. 4:3:2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because damage control resuscitation targets a balanced transfusion ratio of
1:1:1 for packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets to mimic whole blood replacement.
Q12: A patient with ARDS has a PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 180 mmHg on PEEP 10 cmH2O. What severity
classification applies?
A. Mild ARDS
B. Moderate ARDS [CORRECT]
C. Severe ARDS
D. The ratio does not meet ARDS criteria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the Berlin definition classifies ARDS as moderate when the PaO2/FiO2
ratio is 100-200 mmHg on PEEP ≥5 cmH2O, and severe when the ratio is ≤100 mmHg.
Q13: During rapid sequence intubation, a patient desaturates despite preoxygenation. What is the
most appropriate immediate action?
A. Proceed with intubation using a smaller endotracheal tube
FP-C CCP-C Certification Actual Exam
2026/2027 with Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam-Style Questions | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Q1: A 58-year-old patient post-ROSC has a core temperature of 34.2°C. According to targeted
temperature management guidelines, what is the priority intervention?
A. Actively rewarm to 37°C within 60 minutes
B. Administer warmed crystalloid at 43°C to achieve normothermia rapidly
C. Maintain temperature between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours [CORRECT]
D. Initiate surface cooling to achieve 30°C for neuroprotection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because post-cardiac arrest targeted temperature management recommends
maintaining a core temperature between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours to improve neurological
outcomes.
Q2: During RSI, a patient receives succinylcholine and etomidate. Shortly after intubation, the patient
develops peaked T-waves and widened QRS complexes. What is the most likely cause?
A. Anaphylaxis to etomidate
B. Vagal response to laryngoscopy
C. Hyperkalemia secondary to succinylcholine administration [CORRECT]
D. Sympathetic surge from inadequate sedation
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Correct because succinylcholine can cause hyperkalemia, particularly in patients with
burns, crush injuries, or neuromuscular disease, manifesting as peaked T-waves and widened QRS
complexes.
Q3: A 42-year-old diver surfaces rapidly and develops joint pain, pruritus, and a mottled rash. What is
the definitive treatment?
A. High-flow oxygen and surface observation for 24 hours
B. Immediate recompression using Table 5A
C. Recompression in a hyperbaric chamber per US Navy Treatment Table 6 [CORRECT]
D. Administration of corticosteroids and antihistamines only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because decompression sickness requires definitive recompression therapy, with
US Navy Treatment Table 6 being the standard protocol for Type II DCS.
Q4: According to Boyle's Law, what happens to the volume of a pneumothorax as altitude increases?
A. Volume decreases proportionally to altitude gain
B. Volume remains constant regardless of altitude
C. Volume expands as ambient pressure decreases [CORRECT]
D. Volume is only affected by temperature changes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Boyle's Law states that gas volume is inversely proportional to pressure;
as altitude increases and ambient pressure decreases, trapped gas volumes expand.
Q5: A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of E2, V2, M4 is being transported. What is the total
GCS score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8 [CORRECT]
D. 9
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the GCS is calculated by adding Eye (2) + Verbal (2) + Motor (4), which
equals 8, indicating severe head injury.
Q6: A 34-week pregnant patient presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and blood
pressure of 172/110 mmHg. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?
A. Labetalol 20 mg IV to lower blood pressure below 140/90 mmHg
B. Hydralazine 10 mg IV as the first-line antihypertensive
,C. Magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV loading dose for seizure prophylaxis [CORRECT]
D. Nifedipine 30 mg PO for rapid blood pressure control
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in
preeclampsia/eclampsia, administered as a 4-6 gram IV loading dose followed by maintenance
infusion.
Q7: A ventilator is set in assist-control volume mode with tidal volume 500 mL, rate 14, PEEP 5
cmH2O, and FiO2 0.40. The patient's plateau pressure is 32 cmH2O. What adjustment is indicated?
A. Increase tidal volume to 650 mL to improve ventilation
B. Increase PEEP to 10 cmH2O to recruit alveoli
C. Decrease tidal volume to protect against ventilator-induced lung injury [CORRECT]
D. Increase respiratory rate to 20 to compensate for low tidal volume
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because plateau pressures exceeding 30 cmH2O increase the risk of
ventilator-induced lung injury; tidal volume should be reduced to achieve plateau pressure below 30
cmH2O while maintaining appropriate minute ventilation.
Q8: In a patient with suspected Stanford Type A aortic dissection, what is the priority intervention
during critical care transport?
A. Initiate thrombolytic therapy to dissolve the dissection flap
B. Administer beta-blockade and maintain systolic BP 100-120 mmHg
C. Control heart rate and blood pressure while expediting surgical intervention [CORRECT]
D. Insert an intra-aortic balloon pump for afterload reduction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Stanford Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta and require
emergent surgical repair; transport priority is heart rate and blood pressure control to prevent rupture
while expediting definitive care.
Q9: A patient presents with pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and decreased bowel
sounds after an overdose. Which antidote is indicated?
A. Flumazenil 0.2 mg IV
B. Naloxone 0.4-2 mg IV
C. Naloxone 2-4 mg IV with repeat dosing as needed [CORRECT]
D. Atropine 1 mg IV
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Correct because the presentation of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and decreased
bowel sounds is classic for opioid overdose, and naloxone is the specific antidote with initial dosing of
0.4-2 mg IV repeated as needed.
Q10: According to Dalton's Law, what is the primary concern regarding oxygen availability at altitude?
A. The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere decreases significantly
B. Nitrogen displaces oxygen at high altitudes
C. The partial pressure of oxygen decreases as total barometric pressure decreases [CORRECT]
D. Oxygen molecules expand and become less available for diffusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Dalton's Law states that the partial pressure of a gas is proportional to its
percentage in the mixture and the total pressure; as altitude increases and barometric pressure
drops, the partial pressure of oxygen decreases despite the percentage remaining 21%.
Q11: A trauma patient has received 6 units of PRBCs, 6 units FFP, and 6 units platelets. According to
damage control resuscitation principles, what ratio has been achieved?
A. 2:1:1
B. 3:2:1
C. 1:1:1 [CORRECT]
D. 4:3:2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because damage control resuscitation targets a balanced transfusion ratio of
1:1:1 for packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets to mimic whole blood replacement.
Q12: A patient with ARDS has a PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 180 mmHg on PEEP 10 cmH2O. What severity
classification applies?
A. Mild ARDS
B. Moderate ARDS [CORRECT]
C. Severe ARDS
D. The ratio does not meet ARDS criteria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the Berlin definition classifies ARDS as moderate when the PaO2/FiO2
ratio is 100-200 mmHg on PEEP ≥5 cmH2O, and severe when the ratio is ≤100 mmHg.
Q13: During rapid sequence intubation, a patient desaturates despite preoxygenation. What is the
most appropriate immediate action?
A. Proceed with intubation using a smaller endotracheal tube
