HESI Medical-Surgical Exam
2026| Actual Exam Questions
and Verified Answers with
Rationale
During the initial outbreak of genital herpes simplex in a female client, what should be the
nurse's primary focus in planning care?
A: Promotion of comfort.
B: Prevention of pregnancy.
C: Instruction in condom use.
D: Information about transmission.
Correct Answer: A: Promotion of comfort.
Explanation: The initial herpes outbreak is typically very painful with significant discomfort.
Physiologic needs (comfort) take priority over teaching or prevention at this time.
The nurse is caring for a client with multiple trauma after a motor vehicle collision. The nurse
learns that the client has secondary syphilis. Which precaution should the nurse implement?
A: A mask should be worn by anyone entering the client's room.
B: Handwashing is required before and after contact with the client.
C: Gloves should be worn during direct contact with the client's skin.
D: No precautions in addition to standard precautions are necessary.
Correct Answer: C: Gloves should be worn during direct contact with the client's skin.
Explanation: Secondary syphilis causes skin lesions/rash that can drain infectious spirochetes.
Contact precautions (gloves) are required.
,What is the primary nursing problem for a client with asymptomatic primary syphilis?
A: Acute pain.
B: Risk for injury.
C: Sexual dysfunction.
D: Deficient knowledge.
Correct Answer: D: Deficient knowledge.
Explanation: Asymptomatic clients are often unaware they have a sexually transmitted
infection. Lack of knowledge about transmission, treatment, and prevention is the priority
problem.
Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) should the nurse include in a client's teaching plan
that increases the risk for cervical cancer?
A: Neisseria gonorrhoea.
B: Chlamydia trachomatis.
C: Herpes simplex virus.
D: Human papillomavirus.
Correct Answer: D: Human papillomavirus.
Explanation: High-risk HPV strains (e.g., 16, 18) are responsible for the majority of cervical
cancer cases.
A male client with sickle cell anemia, who has been hospitalized for another health problem, tells
the nurse he has had an erection for over 4 hours. What action should the nurse implement first?
A: Notify the client's healthcare provider.
B: Document the finding in the client record.
C: Prepare a warm enema solution for rectal instillation.
D: Obtain a large bore needle for aspiration of the corpora cavernosa.
Correct Answer: A: Notify the client's healthcare provider.
,Explanation: Priapism (prolonged erection) is a urologic emergency in sickle cell disease due to
sickling in penile vessels. Immediate provider notification is required.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has undergone a left orchiectomy
for testicular cancer. Which statement indicates that the client understands his post-operative care
and prognosis?
A: "I should continue to perform testicular self-examination (TSE) monthly on my remaining
testicle."
B: "I should wear an athletic supporter and cup to prevent testicular cancer in my remaining
testicle."
C: "I should always use a condom because I am at increased risk for acquiring a sexually
transmitted disease."
D: "I should make sure my sons know how to perform TSE because they are at increased risk for
this type of cancer."
Correct Answer: A: "I should continue to perform testicular self-examination (TSE) monthly on
my remaining testicle."
Explanation: The remaining testicle is still at risk for cancer. Monthly TSE is essential for early
detection.
The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with chronic prostatitis. What instruction
should the nurse provide the client to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to other areas of
the client's urinary tract?
A: Wear a condom when having sexual intercourse.
B: Avoid consuming alcohol and caffeinated beverages.
C: Empty the bladder completely with each voiding.
D: Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week.
Correct Answer: D: Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week.
Explanation: Regular ejaculation helps drain infected prostatic fluid, reducing bacterial
reservoirs and preventing spread to other urinary tract areas.
, An older female client is admitted with atrophic vaginitis and perineal cutaneous candidiasis.
Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
A: Risk for injury.
B: Impaired comfort.
C: Disturbed body image.
D: Ineffective health maintenance.
Correct Answer: B: Impaired comfort.
Explanation: Atrophic vaginitis causes vaginal dryness, burning, pruritus, and dyspareunia.
Comfort is the most immediate problem.
Which findings are within expected parameters of a normal urinalysis for an older adult? (Select
all that apply.)
pH 6.
Nitrate small.
Protein small.
Sugar negative.
Bilirubin negative.
Specific gravity 1.015.
Correct Answers: pH 6; Sugar negative; Bilirubin negative; Specific gravity 1.015.
Explanation: Normal urine pH is 4.5-8. Glucose and bilirubin should be negative. Specific
gravity 1.015 is within normal range (1.001-1.035). Small nitrates or protein are abnormal.
2026| Actual Exam Questions
and Verified Answers with
Rationale
During the initial outbreak of genital herpes simplex in a female client, what should be the
nurse's primary focus in planning care?
A: Promotion of comfort.
B: Prevention of pregnancy.
C: Instruction in condom use.
D: Information about transmission.
Correct Answer: A: Promotion of comfort.
Explanation: The initial herpes outbreak is typically very painful with significant discomfort.
Physiologic needs (comfort) take priority over teaching or prevention at this time.
The nurse is caring for a client with multiple trauma after a motor vehicle collision. The nurse
learns that the client has secondary syphilis. Which precaution should the nurse implement?
A: A mask should be worn by anyone entering the client's room.
B: Handwashing is required before and after contact with the client.
C: Gloves should be worn during direct contact with the client's skin.
D: No precautions in addition to standard precautions are necessary.
Correct Answer: C: Gloves should be worn during direct contact with the client's skin.
Explanation: Secondary syphilis causes skin lesions/rash that can drain infectious spirochetes.
Contact precautions (gloves) are required.
,What is the primary nursing problem for a client with asymptomatic primary syphilis?
A: Acute pain.
B: Risk for injury.
C: Sexual dysfunction.
D: Deficient knowledge.
Correct Answer: D: Deficient knowledge.
Explanation: Asymptomatic clients are often unaware they have a sexually transmitted
infection. Lack of knowledge about transmission, treatment, and prevention is the priority
problem.
Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) should the nurse include in a client's teaching plan
that increases the risk for cervical cancer?
A: Neisseria gonorrhoea.
B: Chlamydia trachomatis.
C: Herpes simplex virus.
D: Human papillomavirus.
Correct Answer: D: Human papillomavirus.
Explanation: High-risk HPV strains (e.g., 16, 18) are responsible for the majority of cervical
cancer cases.
A male client with sickle cell anemia, who has been hospitalized for another health problem, tells
the nurse he has had an erection for over 4 hours. What action should the nurse implement first?
A: Notify the client's healthcare provider.
B: Document the finding in the client record.
C: Prepare a warm enema solution for rectal instillation.
D: Obtain a large bore needle for aspiration of the corpora cavernosa.
Correct Answer: A: Notify the client's healthcare provider.
,Explanation: Priapism (prolonged erection) is a urologic emergency in sickle cell disease due to
sickling in penile vessels. Immediate provider notification is required.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has undergone a left orchiectomy
for testicular cancer. Which statement indicates that the client understands his post-operative care
and prognosis?
A: "I should continue to perform testicular self-examination (TSE) monthly on my remaining
testicle."
B: "I should wear an athletic supporter and cup to prevent testicular cancer in my remaining
testicle."
C: "I should always use a condom because I am at increased risk for acquiring a sexually
transmitted disease."
D: "I should make sure my sons know how to perform TSE because they are at increased risk for
this type of cancer."
Correct Answer: A: "I should continue to perform testicular self-examination (TSE) monthly on
my remaining testicle."
Explanation: The remaining testicle is still at risk for cancer. Monthly TSE is essential for early
detection.
The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with chronic prostatitis. What instruction
should the nurse provide the client to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to other areas of
the client's urinary tract?
A: Wear a condom when having sexual intercourse.
B: Avoid consuming alcohol and caffeinated beverages.
C: Empty the bladder completely with each voiding.
D: Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week.
Correct Answer: D: Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week.
Explanation: Regular ejaculation helps drain infected prostatic fluid, reducing bacterial
reservoirs and preventing spread to other urinary tract areas.
, An older female client is admitted with atrophic vaginitis and perineal cutaneous candidiasis.
Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
A: Risk for injury.
B: Impaired comfort.
C: Disturbed body image.
D: Ineffective health maintenance.
Correct Answer: B: Impaired comfort.
Explanation: Atrophic vaginitis causes vaginal dryness, burning, pruritus, and dyspareunia.
Comfort is the most immediate problem.
Which findings are within expected parameters of a normal urinalysis for an older adult? (Select
all that apply.)
pH 6.
Nitrate small.
Protein small.
Sugar negative.
Bilirubin negative.
Specific gravity 1.015.
Correct Answers: pH 6; Sugar negative; Bilirubin negative; Specific gravity 1.015.
Explanation: Normal urine pH is 4.5-8. Glucose and bilirubin should be negative. Specific
gravity 1.015 is within normal range (1.001-1.035). Small nitrates or protein are abnormal.
