ATI RN COMMUNITY HEALTH PROCTORED EXAM
2026/2027 | Latest Test Bank - 2 Versions with NGN | Mixed
Questions - 100% Correct Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
VERSION A - 100 QUESTIONS
Section A1: Epidemiology & Disease Prevention (Q1-15)
Q1. A public health nurse is reviewing data on a community's influenza cases. During
the past month, 150 new cases were diagnosed in a population of 50,000. Which
epidemiological measure does this represent?
A. Prevalence rate of 0.3%
B. Incidence rate of 300 per 100,000
C. Attack rate of 150 per 1,000
D. Case fatality rate of 0.3%
Rationale: Incidence measures new cases occurring in a population over a specified
time period. The calculation is (150/50,000) × 100,000 = 300 per 100,000. Prevalence
includes all existing cases; attack rate is typically used for outbreaks with defined
populations at risk; case fatality rate requires death data.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. A community health nurse is implementing a program to teach school-age children
about proper handwashing techniques to prevent gastrointestinal illness. Which level of
prevention is this?
,A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs through health
promotion and education. Teaching handwashing prevents gastrointestinal illness from
happening. Secondary prevention involves early detection (screening); tertiary
prevention manages existing disease; quaternary prevention avoids unnecessary
medical intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Q3. A public health nurse is conducting a screening program for hypertension at a
community health fair. Participants with elevated blood pressure are referred to
primary care providers for follow-up. Which level of prevention is this?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Health promotion
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease through
screening and prompt treatment to prevent progression. Hypertension screening
identifies asymptomatic disease. Primary prevention prevents disease occurrence;
tertiary prevention manages established disease; health promotion is a broader
primary prevention strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A community health nurse is analyzing data from a foodborne illness outbreak at a
wedding reception. Of 200 guests, 80 became ill within 24-48 hours after eating chicken
salad. What is the attack rate?
,A. 40%
B. 80%
C. 20%
D. 160 per 100,000
Rationale: Attack rate = (Number of ill persons / Number of persons at risk) × 100. In
this case: (80/200) × 100 = 40%. Attack rate is used specifically for outbreaks with a
defined population at risk during a limited time period.
Correct Answer: A
Q5. A screening test for diabetes has a sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 90%. Which
statement is correct?
A. The test correctly identifies 85% of people who do not have diabetes
B. The test correctly identifies 90% of people who have diabetes
C. The test correctly identifies 85% of people who have diabetes
D. The test has a 10% false negative rate
Rationale: Sensitivity is the proportion of true positives correctly identified (85% of
people with diabetes are detected). Specificity (90%) is the proportion of true negatives
correctly identified. A 10% false negative rate would mean 90% sensitivity; here, the
false negative rate is 15% (100% - 85% sensitivity).
Correct Answer: C
Q6. A public health nurse is investigating an outbreak of hepatitis A in a community.
Which step should be completed first in the outbreak investigation?
A. Implement control measures to stop transmission
B. Verify the diagnosis and confirm the outbreak
C. Identify all cases and construct an epidemic curve
D. Formulate hypotheses about the source
Rationale: The first step in outbreak investigation is verifying the diagnosis and
confirming that an outbreak exists (more cases than expected). Control measures may
, begin concurrently, but verification must occur first. Case identification, epidemic
curves, and hypotheses follow confirmation.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. A community health nurse is implementing a smoking cessation program for adults
who have already been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which level of prevention is this?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primordial prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention aims to reduce complications and disability from
established disease. Smoking cessation in COPD patients prevents disease progression
and exacerbations. Primary prevention prevents disease onset; secondary prevention
detects early disease; primordial prevention addresses underlying societal conditions.
Correct Answer: C
Q8. A screening test for breast cancer has a positive predictive value (PPV) of 15% in a
low-risk population. Which interpretation is correct?
A. 15% of women with positive tests actually have breast cancer
B. 15% of women with breast cancer will have a positive test
C. 85% of women with negative tests are free of breast cancer
D. 15% of all women screened have breast cancer
Rationale: Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of positive test results that
are true positives. A PPV of 15% means that among women with positive screening
tests, only 15% actually have breast cancer (85% are false positives). This is common in
low-prevalence populations.
Correct Answer: A
2026/2027 | Latest Test Bank - 2 Versions with NGN | Mixed
Questions - 100% Correct Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
VERSION A - 100 QUESTIONS
Section A1: Epidemiology & Disease Prevention (Q1-15)
Q1. A public health nurse is reviewing data on a community's influenza cases. During
the past month, 150 new cases were diagnosed in a population of 50,000. Which
epidemiological measure does this represent?
A. Prevalence rate of 0.3%
B. Incidence rate of 300 per 100,000
C. Attack rate of 150 per 1,000
D. Case fatality rate of 0.3%
Rationale: Incidence measures new cases occurring in a population over a specified
time period. The calculation is (150/50,000) × 100,000 = 300 per 100,000. Prevalence
includes all existing cases; attack rate is typically used for outbreaks with defined
populations at risk; case fatality rate requires death data.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. A community health nurse is implementing a program to teach school-age children
about proper handwashing techniques to prevent gastrointestinal illness. Which level of
prevention is this?
,A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs through health
promotion and education. Teaching handwashing prevents gastrointestinal illness from
happening. Secondary prevention involves early detection (screening); tertiary
prevention manages existing disease; quaternary prevention avoids unnecessary
medical intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Q3. A public health nurse is conducting a screening program for hypertension at a
community health fair. Participants with elevated blood pressure are referred to
primary care providers for follow-up. Which level of prevention is this?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Health promotion
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease through
screening and prompt treatment to prevent progression. Hypertension screening
identifies asymptomatic disease. Primary prevention prevents disease occurrence;
tertiary prevention manages established disease; health promotion is a broader
primary prevention strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A community health nurse is analyzing data from a foodborne illness outbreak at a
wedding reception. Of 200 guests, 80 became ill within 24-48 hours after eating chicken
salad. What is the attack rate?
,A. 40%
B. 80%
C. 20%
D. 160 per 100,000
Rationale: Attack rate = (Number of ill persons / Number of persons at risk) × 100. In
this case: (80/200) × 100 = 40%. Attack rate is used specifically for outbreaks with a
defined population at risk during a limited time period.
Correct Answer: A
Q5. A screening test for diabetes has a sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 90%. Which
statement is correct?
A. The test correctly identifies 85% of people who do not have diabetes
B. The test correctly identifies 90% of people who have diabetes
C. The test correctly identifies 85% of people who have diabetes
D. The test has a 10% false negative rate
Rationale: Sensitivity is the proportion of true positives correctly identified (85% of
people with diabetes are detected). Specificity (90%) is the proportion of true negatives
correctly identified. A 10% false negative rate would mean 90% sensitivity; here, the
false negative rate is 15% (100% - 85% sensitivity).
Correct Answer: C
Q6. A public health nurse is investigating an outbreak of hepatitis A in a community.
Which step should be completed first in the outbreak investigation?
A. Implement control measures to stop transmission
B. Verify the diagnosis and confirm the outbreak
C. Identify all cases and construct an epidemic curve
D. Formulate hypotheses about the source
Rationale: The first step in outbreak investigation is verifying the diagnosis and
confirming that an outbreak exists (more cases than expected). Control measures may
, begin concurrently, but verification must occur first. Case identification, epidemic
curves, and hypotheses follow confirmation.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. A community health nurse is implementing a smoking cessation program for adults
who have already been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which level of prevention is this?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primordial prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention aims to reduce complications and disability from
established disease. Smoking cessation in COPD patients prevents disease progression
and exacerbations. Primary prevention prevents disease onset; secondary prevention
detects early disease; primordial prevention addresses underlying societal conditions.
Correct Answer: C
Q8. A screening test for breast cancer has a positive predictive value (PPV) of 15% in a
low-risk population. Which interpretation is correct?
A. 15% of women with positive tests actually have breast cancer
B. 15% of women with breast cancer will have a positive test
C. 85% of women with negative tests are free of breast cancer
D. 15% of all women screened have breast cancer
Rationale: Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of positive test results that
are true positives. A PPV of 15% means that among women with positive screening
tests, only 15% actually have breast cancer (85% are false positives). This is common in
low-prevalence populations.
Correct Answer: A
