ATI Med Surg Gastrointestinal Actual
Exam Questions And Answers Practice
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1. Celiac Disease
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has celiac disease. Which of the
following foods should the nurse remove from the client's meal tray?
(A) Tapioca pudding
(B) Hard-boiled egg
(C) Wheat toast
(D) Mashed potatoes
Answer: (C) Wheat toast
Rationale: Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten, a
protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Wheat toast contains gluten and
must be eliminated from the diet. Tapioca pudding, eggs, and potatoes are
naturally gluten-free.
2. GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease)
Question: A client with GERD reports heartburn that awakens them at
night. Which recommendation should the nurse provide first?
(A) Take an antacid immediately before lying down.
(B) Elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks.
(C) Eat a large meal at bedtime to buffer acid.
(D) Sleep on the right side to reduce reflux.
Answer: (B) Elevate the head of the bed.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to reduce nocturnal
reflux and is a first-line, non-pharmacologic intervention. Antacids are
, short-acting, large meals worsen reflux, and sleeping on the left side (not
the right) is generally preferred to reduce reflux.
3. Peptic Ulcer Perforation
Question: A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing perforation of a
peptic ulcer. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse
expect?
(A) Increased blood pressure
(B) Decreased heart rate
(C) Yellowing of the skin
(D) Boardlike abdomen
Answer: (D) Boardlike abdomen
Rationale: Perforation of a peptic ulcer releases gastric contents into the
peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. A classic sign is a rigid, board-like
abdomen, accompanied by severe pain and signs of shock.
4. Diverticulitis: Dietary Teaching
Question: A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has
diverticulitis about preventing acute attacks. Which of the following foods
should the nurse recommend?
(A) Foods high in vitamin C
(B) Foods low in fat
(C) Foods high in fiber
(D) Foods low in calories
Answer: (C) Foods high in fiber
Rationale: A long-term, low-fiber eating habit, combined with increased
intracolonic pressure, can lead to straining during bowel movements and
the development of diverticula. A high-fiber diet is recommended to help
prevent acute attacks.
5. Post-Gastric Bypass: Initial Feeding
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative
following a gastric bypass. The nurse notes that bowel sounds are present.
, Which of the following foods should the nurse provide as the initial
feeding?
(A) Vanilla pudding
(B) Apple juice
(C) Diet ginger ale
(D) Clear liquids
Answer: (D) Clear liquids
Rationale: After gastric bypass surgery, the initial feeding should consist of
clear liquids to ensure the client can tolerate oral intake without
complications before advancing the diet.
6. Hepatic Encephalopathy & Alcohol Use
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of cirrhosis and is
admitted with manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse should
anticipate a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests to
determine the possibility of recent excessive alcohol use?
(A) GGT
(B) ALP
(C) Serum bilirubin
(D) ALT
Answer: (A) GGT
Rationale: The GGT (Gamma-glutamyl transferase) lab test is specific to the
hepatobiliary system. Its levels can be elevated by alcohol and hepatotoxic
drugs, making it helpful for monitoring excessive alcohol use and drug
toxicity.
7. A client with a duodenal ulcer reports that pain is relieved by eating.
The nurse understands this is because:
(A) Food buffers gastric acid, reducing duodenal acid exposure
(B) The ulcer is located in the stomach, not the duodenum
(C) Eating stimulates gastrin, which increases mucosal protection
(D) Food physically blocks the ulcer crater
, Answer: (A)
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after meals
(when the stomach empties acid into the duodenum) and is relieved by
food because food buffers gastric acid.
8. A client has a new ileostomy. Which finding is expected?
(A) Formed stool
(B) Continuous liquid output
(C) No output for 24 hrs
(D) Bloody drainage
Answer: (B)
Rationale: An ileostomy is located in the small intestine, where contents
are liquid. Continuous liquid output is expected. Formed stool is more
typical of a colostomy in the descending or sigmoid colon.
9. Which lab value is most concerning in a client with pancreatitis?
(A) Amylase 200 U/L
(B) Lipase 600 U/L
(C) Glucose 90 mg/dL
(D) Calcium 8.5 mg/dL
Answer: (D)
Rationale: While elevated amylase and lipase are expected in pancreatitis,
a low or decreasing calcium level is a serious sign indicating fat necrosis
and poor prognosis. Hypocalcemia can also lead to neuromuscular
irritability. A blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within the reference range.
Exam Questions And Answers Practice
Questions with Solutions Newest |
Already Graded A+
1. Celiac Disease
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has celiac disease. Which of the
following foods should the nurse remove from the client's meal tray?
(A) Tapioca pudding
(B) Hard-boiled egg
(C) Wheat toast
(D) Mashed potatoes
Answer: (C) Wheat toast
Rationale: Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten, a
protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Wheat toast contains gluten and
must be eliminated from the diet. Tapioca pudding, eggs, and potatoes are
naturally gluten-free.
2. GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease)
Question: A client with GERD reports heartburn that awakens them at
night. Which recommendation should the nurse provide first?
(A) Take an antacid immediately before lying down.
(B) Elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks.
(C) Eat a large meal at bedtime to buffer acid.
(D) Sleep on the right side to reduce reflux.
Answer: (B) Elevate the head of the bed.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to reduce nocturnal
reflux and is a first-line, non-pharmacologic intervention. Antacids are
, short-acting, large meals worsen reflux, and sleeping on the left side (not
the right) is generally preferred to reduce reflux.
3. Peptic Ulcer Perforation
Question: A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing perforation of a
peptic ulcer. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse
expect?
(A) Increased blood pressure
(B) Decreased heart rate
(C) Yellowing of the skin
(D) Boardlike abdomen
Answer: (D) Boardlike abdomen
Rationale: Perforation of a peptic ulcer releases gastric contents into the
peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. A classic sign is a rigid, board-like
abdomen, accompanied by severe pain and signs of shock.
4. Diverticulitis: Dietary Teaching
Question: A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has
diverticulitis about preventing acute attacks. Which of the following foods
should the nurse recommend?
(A) Foods high in vitamin C
(B) Foods low in fat
(C) Foods high in fiber
(D) Foods low in calories
Answer: (C) Foods high in fiber
Rationale: A long-term, low-fiber eating habit, combined with increased
intracolonic pressure, can lead to straining during bowel movements and
the development of diverticula. A high-fiber diet is recommended to help
prevent acute attacks.
5. Post-Gastric Bypass: Initial Feeding
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative
following a gastric bypass. The nurse notes that bowel sounds are present.
, Which of the following foods should the nurse provide as the initial
feeding?
(A) Vanilla pudding
(B) Apple juice
(C) Diet ginger ale
(D) Clear liquids
Answer: (D) Clear liquids
Rationale: After gastric bypass surgery, the initial feeding should consist of
clear liquids to ensure the client can tolerate oral intake without
complications before advancing the diet.
6. Hepatic Encephalopathy & Alcohol Use
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of cirrhosis and is
admitted with manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse should
anticipate a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests to
determine the possibility of recent excessive alcohol use?
(A) GGT
(B) ALP
(C) Serum bilirubin
(D) ALT
Answer: (A) GGT
Rationale: The GGT (Gamma-glutamyl transferase) lab test is specific to the
hepatobiliary system. Its levels can be elevated by alcohol and hepatotoxic
drugs, making it helpful for monitoring excessive alcohol use and drug
toxicity.
7. A client with a duodenal ulcer reports that pain is relieved by eating.
The nurse understands this is because:
(A) Food buffers gastric acid, reducing duodenal acid exposure
(B) The ulcer is located in the stomach, not the duodenum
(C) Eating stimulates gastrin, which increases mucosal protection
(D) Food physically blocks the ulcer crater
, Answer: (A)
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after meals
(when the stomach empties acid into the duodenum) and is relieved by
food because food buffers gastric acid.
8. A client has a new ileostomy. Which finding is expected?
(A) Formed stool
(B) Continuous liquid output
(C) No output for 24 hrs
(D) Bloody drainage
Answer: (B)
Rationale: An ileostomy is located in the small intestine, where contents
are liquid. Continuous liquid output is expected. Formed stool is more
typical of a colostomy in the descending or sigmoid colon.
9. Which lab value is most concerning in a client with pancreatitis?
(A) Amylase 200 U/L
(B) Lipase 600 U/L
(C) Glucose 90 mg/dL
(D) Calcium 8.5 mg/dL
Answer: (D)
Rationale: While elevated amylase and lipase are expected in pancreatitis,
a low or decreasing calcium level is a serious sign indicating fat necrosis
and poor prognosis. Hypocalcemia can also lead to neuromuscular
irritability. A blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within the reference range.
