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LATEST UPDATED NR 602 FINAL EXAM - CHILDBEARING FAMILY PRACTICUM | COMPLETE EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES. A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS

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LATEST UPDATED NR 602 FINAL EXAM - CHILDBEARING FAMILY PRACTICUM | COMPLETE EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES. A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS

Institution
NR 602
Course
NR 602

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LATEST UPDATED NR 602 FINAL EXAM -
CHILDBEARING FAMILY PRACTICUM |
COMPLETE EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
AND RATIONALES. A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS

1. A 16-year-old female presents for her first
gynecologic visit. She is sexually active with
one partner. Which screening is recommended
for chlamydia in sexually active females under
age 25?
A) Annual screening (CDC and USPSTF)
B) One-time screening at age 21
C) Screening only if symptomatic
D) No screening needed if using condoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF and CDC recommend
annual chlamydia screening for all sexually
active women aged 24 and younger,
regardless of symptoms or condom use.


2. A 28-year-old pregnant female at 12 weeks
gestation presents with dysuria and frequency.
Urinalysis shows positive nitrites. Which

,antibiotic is safe and appropriate for treatment
of cystitis in pregnancy?
A) Nitrofurantoin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Doxycycline
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole in first
trimester
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is commonly used for
uncomplicated cystitis in pregnancy (avoid
near term due to risk of hemolytic anemia in
the newborn). Ciprofloxacin and doxycycline
are contraindicated. TMP-SMX is avoided in
first trimester due to folate antagonism (neural
tube defect risk).


3. A 15-year-old female presents with a 3-day
history of dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic
pain. She has no vaginal discharge or fever.
Urinalysis shows leukocyte esterase and
nitrites. Which is most appropriate treatment?
A) Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
B) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for 3 days
(not first-line)

,C) Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
D) Fluconazole 150 mg single dose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncomplicated cystitis in an
adolescent female is treated with
nitrofurantoin (5 days), TMP-SMX (3 days), or
fosfomycin (single dose). Fluoroquinolones are
not first-line.


4. A 22-year-old female presents with a 2-day
history of vulvar itching and thick, white,
cottage cheese-like discharge without odor.
She has no fever. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A) Candidal vulvovaginitis
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thick, white, adherent, cottage
cheese-like discharge with pruritus is classic
for Candida albicans vaginitis. Risk factors
include antibiotics, diabetes, pregnancy, and
immunosuppression.

, 5. A 30-year-old pregnant female at 28 weeks
gestation presents with a 2-day history of
headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain.
Blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg. Urine
protein is 3+. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A) Severe preeclampsia
B) Gestational hypertension
C) HELLP syndrome
D) Migraine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertension after 20 weeks with
proteinuria and end-organ symptoms
(headache, visual changes, epigastric pain)
defines severe preeclampsia. HELLP
syndrome is a variant with hemolysis, elevated
liver enzymes, and low platelets.


6. A 6-month-old infant presents for a well-child
visit. Which vaccine is recommended at this
age?
A) DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, rotavirus (third
doses)
B) MMR

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Institution
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Course
NR 602

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Uploaded on
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