ATI MED SURG IMMUNE & INFECTION,
ATI MED SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST 2025
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
Immune & Infection (Questions 1–23)
1. A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is 2 days
postoperative. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse
that the client is developing an infection?
A. Temperature 100°F (37.8°C)
B. Erythema at the incision site
C. WBC count 9,000/mm3
D. Pain reported as a 6 on a 0 to 10 scale
☑ Correct Answer: B. Erythema at the incision site
*Rationale: Redness (erythema) at the surgical site is a classic localized sign
of inflammation and infection. A temperature of 100°F is within normal
range. A WBC of 9,000 is normal (5,000-10,000). Pain is expected post-op
but does not specifically indicate infection without other signs.*
2. A client with a history of severe allergic reactions is taught about
reducing exposure to dust mites. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I will vacuum my home once a week."
,B. "I will install an electrostatic filter in my furnace."
C. "I will carpet the entire house to trap the dust."
D. "I will install heavy curtains to block the dust."
☑ Correct Answer: B. "I will install an electrostatic filter in my furnace."
Rationale: Electrostatic filters help trap dust mites. Vacuuming can stir up
dust, carpeting traps mites, and heavy curtains collect dust, so they should be
avoided or minimized.
3. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with the partner of a client
who has AIDS. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will dispose of soiled tissues in separate plastic bags."
B. "I will clean up blood spills immediately with hot water."
C. "I will wear gloves if I have a cut on my hand."
D. "I will use a bleach solution to clean surfaces."
☑ Correct Answer: B. "I will clean up blood spills immediately with hot
water."
Rationale: Blood spills should be cleaned with a 1:10 dilution of bleach, not
just hot water, to inactivate HIV.
4. A client has a positive Mantoux (PPD) skin test. The nurse explains
that this indicates:
A. The client has active tuberculosis.
B. The client has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C. The client is immune to tuberculosis.
D. The client needs a chest x-ray immediately.
☑ Correct Answer: B. The client has been infected with Mycobacterium
tuberculosis.
Rationale: A positive PPD indicates exposure and infection with TB, but not
necessarily active disease. A chest x-ray is needed to rule out active TB.
5. A nurse is preparing to transport a client with active pulmonary
tuberculosis to the radiology department. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Place a surgical mask on the client.
B. Wear an N-95 respirator but do not mask the client.
,C. Place a mask on the client and wear an N-95 respirator.
D. Request a portable x-ray in the room.
☑ Correct Answer: C. Place a mask on the client and wear an N-95
respirator.
*Rationale: Airborne precautions are required for TB. The client must wear a
surgical mask to prevent droplet nuclei from escaping, and the nurse/staff
must wear an N-95 respirator for personal protection.*
6. A nurse is teaching a community health class about the body's first
line of defense against infection. Which of the following should the
nurse include as an example?
A. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
B. Production of antibodies by B-lymphocytes
C. Secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
D. Activation of helper T-cells
Answer: C
Explanation: The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers
like intact skin, mucous membranes, gastric acid, and saliva. Options A, B,
and D are components of the second (inflammatory response) and third
(specific adaptive immunity) lines of defense.
7. Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for an impaired
immune response?
A. A 25-year-old with a sprained ankle
B. A 45-year-old undergoing a routine colonoscopy
C. A 30-year-old who is 8 weeks pregnant
D. A 70-year-old receiving chemotherapy for leukemia
Answer: D
Explanation: Chemotherapy causes myelosuppression, significantly reducing
neutrophil count (neutropenia) and impairing both innate and adaptive
immunity. Age over 65 and a diagnosis of cancer are additional risk factors.
8. A client with a history of severe allergy to shellfish arrives at the ED
with urticaria, facial edema, and wheezing after accidental exposure.
The nurse anticipates the immediate administration of:
, A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
B. Epinephrine (Adrenaline) IM
C. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV
D. Ranitidine (Zantac) IV
Answer: B
Explanation: This describes anaphylaxis, a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to reverse bronchospasm and
hypotension. Antihistamines and steroids are adjunctive but not immediate
lifesaving interventions.
9. When reviewing a client's laboratory results, which finding is most
indicative of a current bacterial infection?
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B. Increased eosinophil count
C. Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer
D. Elevated serum creatinine level
Answer: A
Explanation: ESR is a non-specific marker of inflammation, often elevated in
bacterial infections. Eosinophilia suggests allergic or parasitic conditions.
Positive ANA is associated with autoimmune diseases like lupus. Elevated
creatinine indicates renal impairment.
10. A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) asks
how the disease process works. The nurse's response should be based
on the understanding that SLE is primarily a:
A. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type III immune complex-mediated reaction
C. Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction
D. Immunodeficiency disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: SLE is a classic example of a Type III hypersensitivity, where
antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues (like kidneys, skin, joints),
causing inflammation and damage.
ATI MED SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST 2025
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
Immune & Infection (Questions 1–23)
1. A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is 2 days
postoperative. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse
that the client is developing an infection?
A. Temperature 100°F (37.8°C)
B. Erythema at the incision site
C. WBC count 9,000/mm3
D. Pain reported as a 6 on a 0 to 10 scale
☑ Correct Answer: B. Erythema at the incision site
*Rationale: Redness (erythema) at the surgical site is a classic localized sign
of inflammation and infection. A temperature of 100°F is within normal
range. A WBC of 9,000 is normal (5,000-10,000). Pain is expected post-op
but does not specifically indicate infection without other signs.*
2. A client with a history of severe allergic reactions is taught about
reducing exposure to dust mites. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I will vacuum my home once a week."
,B. "I will install an electrostatic filter in my furnace."
C. "I will carpet the entire house to trap the dust."
D. "I will install heavy curtains to block the dust."
☑ Correct Answer: B. "I will install an electrostatic filter in my furnace."
Rationale: Electrostatic filters help trap dust mites. Vacuuming can stir up
dust, carpeting traps mites, and heavy curtains collect dust, so they should be
avoided or minimized.
3. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with the partner of a client
who has AIDS. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will dispose of soiled tissues in separate plastic bags."
B. "I will clean up blood spills immediately with hot water."
C. "I will wear gloves if I have a cut on my hand."
D. "I will use a bleach solution to clean surfaces."
☑ Correct Answer: B. "I will clean up blood spills immediately with hot
water."
Rationale: Blood spills should be cleaned with a 1:10 dilution of bleach, not
just hot water, to inactivate HIV.
4. A client has a positive Mantoux (PPD) skin test. The nurse explains
that this indicates:
A. The client has active tuberculosis.
B. The client has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C. The client is immune to tuberculosis.
D. The client needs a chest x-ray immediately.
☑ Correct Answer: B. The client has been infected with Mycobacterium
tuberculosis.
Rationale: A positive PPD indicates exposure and infection with TB, but not
necessarily active disease. A chest x-ray is needed to rule out active TB.
5. A nurse is preparing to transport a client with active pulmonary
tuberculosis to the radiology department. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Place a surgical mask on the client.
B. Wear an N-95 respirator but do not mask the client.
,C. Place a mask on the client and wear an N-95 respirator.
D. Request a portable x-ray in the room.
☑ Correct Answer: C. Place a mask on the client and wear an N-95
respirator.
*Rationale: Airborne precautions are required for TB. The client must wear a
surgical mask to prevent droplet nuclei from escaping, and the nurse/staff
must wear an N-95 respirator for personal protection.*
6. A nurse is teaching a community health class about the body's first
line of defense against infection. Which of the following should the
nurse include as an example?
A. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
B. Production of antibodies by B-lymphocytes
C. Secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
D. Activation of helper T-cells
Answer: C
Explanation: The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers
like intact skin, mucous membranes, gastric acid, and saliva. Options A, B,
and D are components of the second (inflammatory response) and third
(specific adaptive immunity) lines of defense.
7. Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for an impaired
immune response?
A. A 25-year-old with a sprained ankle
B. A 45-year-old undergoing a routine colonoscopy
C. A 30-year-old who is 8 weeks pregnant
D. A 70-year-old receiving chemotherapy for leukemia
Answer: D
Explanation: Chemotherapy causes myelosuppression, significantly reducing
neutrophil count (neutropenia) and impairing both innate and adaptive
immunity. Age over 65 and a diagnosis of cancer are additional risk factors.
8. A client with a history of severe allergy to shellfish arrives at the ED
with urticaria, facial edema, and wheezing after accidental exposure.
The nurse anticipates the immediate administration of:
, A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
B. Epinephrine (Adrenaline) IM
C. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV
D. Ranitidine (Zantac) IV
Answer: B
Explanation: This describes anaphylaxis, a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to reverse bronchospasm and
hypotension. Antihistamines and steroids are adjunctive but not immediate
lifesaving interventions.
9. When reviewing a client's laboratory results, which finding is most
indicative of a current bacterial infection?
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B. Increased eosinophil count
C. Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer
D. Elevated serum creatinine level
Answer: A
Explanation: ESR is a non-specific marker of inflammation, often elevated in
bacterial infections. Eosinophilia suggests allergic or parasitic conditions.
Positive ANA is associated with autoimmune diseases like lupus. Elevated
creatinine indicates renal impairment.
10. A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) asks
how the disease process works. The nurse's response should be based
on the understanding that SLE is primarily a:
A. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type III immune complex-mediated reaction
C. Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction
D. Immunodeficiency disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: SLE is a classic example of a Type III hypersensitivity, where
antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues (like kidneys, skin, joints),
causing inflammation and damage.
