HESI Pharmacology Exam Practice
2025-2026 Questions and Correct
Answers
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug
allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillin’s.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - correct answer: A) Penicillin’s.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillin’s (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering
this drug.
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity. - correct answer: C) Inspect the client's
oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis
and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical
interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.
,When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most
important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head. - correct answer: B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the
nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate
liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where pain would be anticipated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transdermal Scop) to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - correct answer: A) Apply the patch
at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset
in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before
departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not
needed. Scopolamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so
the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C).
Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid
alcohol (D) while using the patch.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in
the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal
rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What
assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA pump?
,A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain. - correct answer: B) The rate and depth of
the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate
narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare
provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse
should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C,
and D) provide helpful information, but are not as high a priority as the assessment described in
(B).
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with
which condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma. - correct answer: C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are
indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.
Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1
blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate
beta-2 receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders,
such as asthma (D).
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To
prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which
information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
, B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - correct answer: A) Use contraception during
intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X and can act as
an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A)
to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is
diarrhea, so constipation prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin
should be taken together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding.
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and milk products. - correct answer: B) Refrain for eating foods high in
potassium.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet
high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and
milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is
performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
2025-2026 Questions and Correct
Answers
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug
allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillin’s.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - correct answer: A) Penicillin’s.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillin’s (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering
this drug.
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity. - correct answer: C) Inspect the client's
oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis
and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical
interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.
,When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most
important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head. - correct answer: B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the
nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate
liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where pain would be anticipated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transdermal Scop) to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - correct answer: A) Apply the patch
at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset
in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before
departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not
needed. Scopolamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so
the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C).
Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid
alcohol (D) while using the patch.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in
the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal
rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What
assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA pump?
,A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain. - correct answer: B) The rate and depth of
the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate
narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare
provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse
should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C,
and D) provide helpful information, but are not as high a priority as the assessment described in
(B).
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with
which condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma. - correct answer: C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are
indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.
Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1
blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate
beta-2 receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders,
such as asthma (D).
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To
prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which
information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
, B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - correct answer: A) Use contraception during
intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X and can act as
an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A)
to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is
diarrhea, so constipation prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin
should be taken together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding.
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and milk products. - correct answer: B) Refrain for eating foods high in
potassium.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet
high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and
milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is
performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
