AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM (2026)
Complete Study Guide | Verified Questions &
Answers | Graded A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
The AORN Periop 101 Final Exam assesses competency in perioperative nursing fundamentals aligned
with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026 Edition) . The exam covers patient safety,
infection prevention, sterile technique, surgical instrumentation, anesthesia considerations, wound
management, and professional accountability .
SECTION 1: WOUND HEALING & CLOSURE
Question 1
There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes secondary intention.
• A) The wound is approximated with no wound separation.
• B) The wound is cleaned, debrided and packed.
• C) The wound is vascularized.
• D) Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Secondary intention healing occurs when the wound is left open and heals from the inside
out by granulation. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation. Primary
intention involves direct wound approximation with no separation. Tertiary intention (delayed primary
closure) involves cleaning, debriding, and packing the wound before closure .
Question 2
An example of a simple drain is:
• A) Jackson-Pratt drain
• B) Penrose drain
• C) Hemovac drain
• D) Pleur-evac drain
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Penrose drain is a soft, flat, flexible latex drain that allows fluid to drain passively from a
wound site by gravity and capillary action. It is considered a simple drain because it has no collection
reservoir. Jackson-Pratt and Hemovac drains are closed-suction drainage systems .
Question 3
Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure wound therapy?
• A) Applies constant, positive wound pressure.
• B) Promotes wound contracture.
• C) Increases bacterial loads.
• D) Encourages edema.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) promotes wound contracture and healing by
applying controlled negative pressure to the wound bed. It reduces bacterial loads, decreases edema,
and promotes granulation tissue formation .
Question 4
Which description of an additional skin closure option is applicable to a zipper closure?
• A) Limited to use on superficial wounds.
• B) Easier to remove than sutures.
• C) Distributes skin-stretching forces over a side surface area.
• D) A stand-alone skin approximation method used in conjunction with a suture closure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zipper closure devices (e.g., ZipLine, Dermaclose) distribute skin-stretching forces over a
broad surface area, reducing tension at the wound edges. This helps minimize scarring and promotes
optimal healing .
Question 5
Which option describes an interrupted suture?
• A) A single stitch that is tied independently.
• B) A suture that encircles the wound.
, • C) A heavy suture that reinforces the primary suture line.
• D) A suture placed in an epidermal layer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An interrupted suture is a single stitch that is tied independently, allowing each suture to be
placed and secured separately. This technique provides good wound security and allows for removal of
individual sutures if needed without affecting the entire closure .
Question 6
The disadvantage of using skin clips for wound closure is that they often cause:
• A) More scarring than other skin closure methods
• B) Increased risk of infection
• C) Difficulty with removal
• D) Allergic reactions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skin clips (stainless steel staples) often cause more visible scarring than other closure
methods because they create puncture wounds at each staple site and can cause more tissue trauma if
not placed properly .
SECTION 2: STERILE TECHNIQUE & ASEPSIS
Question 7
Which gowning and gloving action would a scrub nurse perform?
• A) Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.
• B) Drying arms and hands by waving them in the air.
• C) Gloving after team members only when the hand is exposed and the sterile gown cuff is at
the wrist.
• D) Wearing double gloves that are extra loose to avoid numbness.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scrub nurses should change their gloves every 90-150 minutes or immediately after contact
with bone cement, which can degrade glove integrity. Hands should be dried with sterile towels, not by
waving. Double gloves should fit properly, not be extra loose .
, Question 8
Which barrier level gown would you choose if you anticipated high risk of exposure?
• A) Level 1
• B) Level 2
• C) Level 3
• D) Level 4
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Level 4 gowns provide the highest level of fluid protection and are indicated for high-risk
exposure situations, such as procedures with potential for blood and fluid splashing or when working
with high volumes of irrigant .
Question 9
Which of the following statements regarding surgical attire is CORRECT?
• A) Personnel don a head covering before entering unrestricted areas.
• B) Masks are required in semi-restricted areas.
• C) Personnel remove all hand and wrist jewelry before performing hand hygiene.
• D) Beard covers are only required in restricted areas.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Personnel must remove all hand and wrist jewelry before performing hand hygiene to ensure
proper cleaning and reduce the risk of harboring microorganisms. Masks are required in restricted and
semi-restricted areas. Beard covers are required in semi-restricted and restricted areas. Head coverings
are required in semi-restricted and restricted areas .
Question 10
Which of the following statements regarding hand hygiene is INCORRECT?
• A) Fingernails should be kept short and clean.
• B) Personnel should follow the facility's policy and procedure regarding the use of nail polish.
• C) Hand hygiene is the single most effective infection prevention action.
• D) Personnel should use personal hand lotion to maintain their skin integrity.
Correct Answer: D
Complete Study Guide | Verified Questions &
Answers | Graded A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
The AORN Periop 101 Final Exam assesses competency in perioperative nursing fundamentals aligned
with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026 Edition) . The exam covers patient safety,
infection prevention, sterile technique, surgical instrumentation, anesthesia considerations, wound
management, and professional accountability .
SECTION 1: WOUND HEALING & CLOSURE
Question 1
There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes secondary intention.
• A) The wound is approximated with no wound separation.
• B) The wound is cleaned, debrided and packed.
• C) The wound is vascularized.
• D) Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Secondary intention healing occurs when the wound is left open and heals from the inside
out by granulation. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation. Primary
intention involves direct wound approximation with no separation. Tertiary intention (delayed primary
closure) involves cleaning, debriding, and packing the wound before closure .
Question 2
An example of a simple drain is:
• A) Jackson-Pratt drain
• B) Penrose drain
• C) Hemovac drain
• D) Pleur-evac drain
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Penrose drain is a soft, flat, flexible latex drain that allows fluid to drain passively from a
wound site by gravity and capillary action. It is considered a simple drain because it has no collection
reservoir. Jackson-Pratt and Hemovac drains are closed-suction drainage systems .
Question 3
Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure wound therapy?
• A) Applies constant, positive wound pressure.
• B) Promotes wound contracture.
• C) Increases bacterial loads.
• D) Encourages edema.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) promotes wound contracture and healing by
applying controlled negative pressure to the wound bed. It reduces bacterial loads, decreases edema,
and promotes granulation tissue formation .
Question 4
Which description of an additional skin closure option is applicable to a zipper closure?
• A) Limited to use on superficial wounds.
• B) Easier to remove than sutures.
• C) Distributes skin-stretching forces over a side surface area.
• D) A stand-alone skin approximation method used in conjunction with a suture closure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zipper closure devices (e.g., ZipLine, Dermaclose) distribute skin-stretching forces over a
broad surface area, reducing tension at the wound edges. This helps minimize scarring and promotes
optimal healing .
Question 5
Which option describes an interrupted suture?
• A) A single stitch that is tied independently.
• B) A suture that encircles the wound.
, • C) A heavy suture that reinforces the primary suture line.
• D) A suture placed in an epidermal layer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An interrupted suture is a single stitch that is tied independently, allowing each suture to be
placed and secured separately. This technique provides good wound security and allows for removal of
individual sutures if needed without affecting the entire closure .
Question 6
The disadvantage of using skin clips for wound closure is that they often cause:
• A) More scarring than other skin closure methods
• B) Increased risk of infection
• C) Difficulty with removal
• D) Allergic reactions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skin clips (stainless steel staples) often cause more visible scarring than other closure
methods because they create puncture wounds at each staple site and can cause more tissue trauma if
not placed properly .
SECTION 2: STERILE TECHNIQUE & ASEPSIS
Question 7
Which gowning and gloving action would a scrub nurse perform?
• A) Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.
• B) Drying arms and hands by waving them in the air.
• C) Gloving after team members only when the hand is exposed and the sterile gown cuff is at
the wrist.
• D) Wearing double gloves that are extra loose to avoid numbness.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scrub nurses should change their gloves every 90-150 minutes or immediately after contact
with bone cement, which can degrade glove integrity. Hands should be dried with sterile towels, not by
waving. Double gloves should fit properly, not be extra loose .
, Question 8
Which barrier level gown would you choose if you anticipated high risk of exposure?
• A) Level 1
• B) Level 2
• C) Level 3
• D) Level 4
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Level 4 gowns provide the highest level of fluid protection and are indicated for high-risk
exposure situations, such as procedures with potential for blood and fluid splashing or when working
with high volumes of irrigant .
Question 9
Which of the following statements regarding surgical attire is CORRECT?
• A) Personnel don a head covering before entering unrestricted areas.
• B) Masks are required in semi-restricted areas.
• C) Personnel remove all hand and wrist jewelry before performing hand hygiene.
• D) Beard covers are only required in restricted areas.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Personnel must remove all hand and wrist jewelry before performing hand hygiene to ensure
proper cleaning and reduce the risk of harboring microorganisms. Masks are required in restricted and
semi-restricted areas. Beard covers are required in semi-restricted and restricted areas. Head coverings
are required in semi-restricted and restricted areas .
Question 10
Which of the following statements regarding hand hygiene is INCORRECT?
• A) Fingernails should be kept short and clean.
• B) Personnel should follow the facility's policy and procedure regarding the use of nail polish.
• C) Hand hygiene is the single most effective infection prevention action.
• D) Personnel should use personal hand lotion to maintain their skin integrity.
Correct Answer: D
