NR607 FINAL EXAM NEWEST BANK 310 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 2026-2027.
Eric is a 37-year-old who presents to the clinic with new symptoms.
Past psychiatric history: Eric was diagnosed with schizophrenia at age 22. At that time, he
had symptoms of paranoia, auditory hallucinations, avolition, and social withdrawal. He
was prescribed aripiprazole 10 mg with good results. Over the past 15 years, his dose has
been titrated up to 15 mg daily with mild, tolerable adverse effects. Eric has no history of
relapse of symptoms before this point. Eric denies substance use or other psychiatric
history.
During the appointment, Eric endorses his symptoms have returned. He has begun having
auditory hallucinations, and he worries that everyone around him is "out to get him." Upon
further inquiry, Eric states that his dad, with whom he lived, died six months ago and Eric
no longer has reliable housing. He tries to remember to take his medications daily, but
states "I don't always have them with m - ANSWER-schizophrenia; multiple episodes,
currently in acute episode
,Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for Eric is schizophrenia; multiple episodes, currently
in acute episode. Eric has had a history of auditory hallucinations which resolved. At this
time the hallucinations have returned, this is a second acute episode.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic management strategy for
Eric?
-switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg intramuscular injection once monthly
-switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 662 mg intramuscular injection once monthly
-switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 882 mg intramuscular injection once monthly - ANSWER-
switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg intramuscular injection once monthly
Rationale: The most appropriate pharmacologic management strategy for Eric is to switch
to aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg intramuscular injection once monthly. Eric had good
symptom control with aripiprazole, but recent life changes have made it difficult to adhere
to medication therapy. Switching to a long-acting injectable is an appropriate management
strategy. without concerns of opioid overdose, a potentially life-threatening interaction.
,The PMHNP (Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner) is providing care to a 29-year-
old client who presents with persistent sadness and hopelessness for the last two months.
She is having difficulty sleeping and has a decreased appetite. This is the patient's first
contact with with the healthcare system about her concerns.
PMHNP role:
Acute PMHNP Care
Telehealth
Case Management
Primary Care
Pharmacologic Intervention
Crisis Intervention
Partial Hospitalization/Intensive Outpatient Tx
Community-Based Care
Self-Employment
Psychotherapy - ANSWER-Primary Care
, Rationale: This is the client's initial contact with the healthcare system about her concerns
The client has experienced depressive symptoms. The PMHNP prescribes a selective
serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
PMHNP role:
Acute PMHNP Care
Telehealth
Case Management
Primary Care
Pharmacologic Intervention
Crisis Intervention
Partial Hospitalization/Intensive Outpatient Tx
Community-Based Care
Self-Employment
Psychotherapy - ANSWER-Pharmacologic Intervention
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 2026-2027.
Eric is a 37-year-old who presents to the clinic with new symptoms.
Past psychiatric history: Eric was diagnosed with schizophrenia at age 22. At that time, he
had symptoms of paranoia, auditory hallucinations, avolition, and social withdrawal. He
was prescribed aripiprazole 10 mg with good results. Over the past 15 years, his dose has
been titrated up to 15 mg daily with mild, tolerable adverse effects. Eric has no history of
relapse of symptoms before this point. Eric denies substance use or other psychiatric
history.
During the appointment, Eric endorses his symptoms have returned. He has begun having
auditory hallucinations, and he worries that everyone around him is "out to get him." Upon
further inquiry, Eric states that his dad, with whom he lived, died six months ago and Eric
no longer has reliable housing. He tries to remember to take his medications daily, but
states "I don't always have them with m - ANSWER-schizophrenia; multiple episodes,
currently in acute episode
,Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for Eric is schizophrenia; multiple episodes, currently
in acute episode. Eric has had a history of auditory hallucinations which resolved. At this
time the hallucinations have returned, this is a second acute episode.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic management strategy for
Eric?
-switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg intramuscular injection once monthly
-switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 662 mg intramuscular injection once monthly
-switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 882 mg intramuscular injection once monthly - ANSWER-
switch to aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg intramuscular injection once monthly
Rationale: The most appropriate pharmacologic management strategy for Eric is to switch
to aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg intramuscular injection once monthly. Eric had good
symptom control with aripiprazole, but recent life changes have made it difficult to adhere
to medication therapy. Switching to a long-acting injectable is an appropriate management
strategy. without concerns of opioid overdose, a potentially life-threatening interaction.
,The PMHNP (Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner) is providing care to a 29-year-
old client who presents with persistent sadness and hopelessness for the last two months.
She is having difficulty sleeping and has a decreased appetite. This is the patient's first
contact with with the healthcare system about her concerns.
PMHNP role:
Acute PMHNP Care
Telehealth
Case Management
Primary Care
Pharmacologic Intervention
Crisis Intervention
Partial Hospitalization/Intensive Outpatient Tx
Community-Based Care
Self-Employment
Psychotherapy - ANSWER-Primary Care
, Rationale: This is the client's initial contact with the healthcare system about her concerns
The client has experienced depressive symptoms. The PMHNP prescribes a selective
serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
PMHNP role:
Acute PMHNP Care
Telehealth
Case Management
Primary Care
Pharmacologic Intervention
Crisis Intervention
Partial Hospitalization/Intensive Outpatient Tx
Community-Based Care
Self-Employment
Psychotherapy - ANSWER-Pharmacologic Intervention
