NUR 2513 MATERNAL CHILD NURSING EXAM / LATEST NUR 2513
MATERNAL CHILD NURSING FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE
ACCURATE EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS WITH WELL ELABORATED
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS) CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
(BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED NUR 2513 MATERNAL CHILD
NURSING APPROVED FINAL EXAM
1. A 28-year-old client at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery
unit. She reports regular uterine contractions occurring every 4-5 minutes, lasting
45 seconds, over the past 2 hours. She is 3 cm dilated and 80% effaced. Which
nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client?
A. Risk for Impaired Parenting related to the birth of a new infant
B. Anxiety related to the labor process
C. Acute Pain related to uterine contractions (CORRECT ANSWER)
D. Knowledge Deficit related to the stages of labor
Rationale: The client is in active labor, experiencing frequent and regular
contractions. Pain is an expected physiological response to uterine contractions
and cervical dilation. According to Maslow's hierarchy, physiological needs
(pain relief) take priority over psychological concerns like anxiety or parenting.
Addressing the client's immediate pain is paramount for comfort and to prevent
complications like exhaustion.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 minute of life. The heart rate is 110 bpm, the
infant is crying vigorously, the extremities are flexed, and the hands and feet are
cyanotic. What is the Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9 (CORRECT ANSWER)
,D. 10
Rationale: The Apgar score evaluates the newborn's transition to extrauterine
life. Heart rate: >100 bpm = 2 points. Respiratory effort: crying = 2 points.
Muscle tone: flexed extremities = 2 points. Reflex irritability: vigorous cry = 2
points. Color: hands and feet cyanotic (acrocyanosis) = 1 point. The total is
2+2+2+2+1 = 9.
3. A patient who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted with preeclampsia and is
receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates
magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
B. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute (CORRECT ANSWER)
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity is a life-threatening complication.
Therapeutic levels are 4-7 mEq/L. Signs of toxicity include a loss of deep tendon
reflexes (areflexia), respiratory depression (<12 breaths/min), and oliguria (<30
mL/hr). A respiratory rate of 10 indicates severe respiratory depression requiring
immediate discontinuation of the infusion and administration of the antidote,
calcium gluconate.
4. A full-term newborn is 24 hours old. The nurse notes a yellowish discoloration
of the skin on the head and trunk. The mother is Rh-negative and the infant is Rh-
positive. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Obtain an order for phototherapy.
B. Reassure the mother that this is normal physiological jaundice.
C. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for a bilirubin level draw.
(CORRECT ANSWER)
,D. Increase the infant's oral intake of sterile water.
Rationale: Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life is considered
pathological, not physiological. Given the Rh incompatibility, the infant is at
high risk for hemolytic disease, leading to a rapid rise in serum bilirubin and
potential for kernicterus. The priority is to notify the provider for immediate
assessment and intervention.
5. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is 2 days post-delivery. She is
crying and expresses feeling overwhelmed. She asks, "Why am I so emotional?"
Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "You need to focus on your baby, not your own feelings."
B. "This might be a sign of postpartum depression and needs to be treated."
C. "The sudden drop in your hormones after delivery often causes these mood
swings, which are usually normal and temporary." (CORRECT ANSWER)
D. "I can contact a social worker for you if you feel like you can't handle this."
Rationale: This scenario describes "postpartum blues," characterized by mood
swings, tearfulness, and anxiety, peaking on day 3-5. It is attributed to hormonal
changes, fatigue, and the stress of a new role. Providing education and
reassurance is appropriate. Postpartum depression is a more severe, persistent
condition.
6. A client with a history of herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) is in active labor.
A lesion is noted on her perineum. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer acyclovir as ordered.
B. Prepare the client for a cesarean section. (CORRECT ANSWER)
C. Initiate contact precautions.
D. Reassure the client and continue with the vaginal delivery.
, Rationale: Active genital herpes lesions are a primary indication for a cesarean
delivery to prevent neonatal exposure to the virus during vaginal birth. Neonatal
HSV infection is a severe condition with high morbidity and mortality. The
priority is to prevent vertical transmission by surgical delivery.
7. When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse places the Doppler device over
which part of the fetus?
A. The head
B. The buttocks
C. The back (CORRECT ANSWER)
D. The extremities
Rationale: The fetal heart sounds are best transmitted through the fetal back,
which typically is closest to the uterine wall in a vertex presentation (cephalic).
The nurse locates the back by palpation (Leopold's maneuvers) to find the point
of maximal intensity for fetal heart tones.
8. Which finding is most indicative of placental separation during the third stage of
labor?
A. A sudden gush of blood
B. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
C. Change in the shape of the uterus from discoid to globular
D. All of the above (CORRECT ANSWER)
Rationale: Signs of placental separation include a sudden gush of vaginal
bleeding, lengthening of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina, and a
change in the shape and consistency of the uterus (becoming firm, globular, and
rising in the abdomen). These are all classic indicators of placental detachment.
MATERNAL CHILD NURSING FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE
ACCURATE EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS WITH WELL ELABORATED
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS) CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
(BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED NUR 2513 MATERNAL CHILD
NURSING APPROVED FINAL EXAM
1. A 28-year-old client at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery
unit. She reports regular uterine contractions occurring every 4-5 minutes, lasting
45 seconds, over the past 2 hours. She is 3 cm dilated and 80% effaced. Which
nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client?
A. Risk for Impaired Parenting related to the birth of a new infant
B. Anxiety related to the labor process
C. Acute Pain related to uterine contractions (CORRECT ANSWER)
D. Knowledge Deficit related to the stages of labor
Rationale: The client is in active labor, experiencing frequent and regular
contractions. Pain is an expected physiological response to uterine contractions
and cervical dilation. According to Maslow's hierarchy, physiological needs
(pain relief) take priority over psychological concerns like anxiety or parenting.
Addressing the client's immediate pain is paramount for comfort and to prevent
complications like exhaustion.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 minute of life. The heart rate is 110 bpm, the
infant is crying vigorously, the extremities are flexed, and the hands and feet are
cyanotic. What is the Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9 (CORRECT ANSWER)
,D. 10
Rationale: The Apgar score evaluates the newborn's transition to extrauterine
life. Heart rate: >100 bpm = 2 points. Respiratory effort: crying = 2 points.
Muscle tone: flexed extremities = 2 points. Reflex irritability: vigorous cry = 2
points. Color: hands and feet cyanotic (acrocyanosis) = 1 point. The total is
2+2+2+2+1 = 9.
3. A patient who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted with preeclampsia and is
receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates
magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
B. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute (CORRECT ANSWER)
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity is a life-threatening complication.
Therapeutic levels are 4-7 mEq/L. Signs of toxicity include a loss of deep tendon
reflexes (areflexia), respiratory depression (<12 breaths/min), and oliguria (<30
mL/hr). A respiratory rate of 10 indicates severe respiratory depression requiring
immediate discontinuation of the infusion and administration of the antidote,
calcium gluconate.
4. A full-term newborn is 24 hours old. The nurse notes a yellowish discoloration
of the skin on the head and trunk. The mother is Rh-negative and the infant is Rh-
positive. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Obtain an order for phototherapy.
B. Reassure the mother that this is normal physiological jaundice.
C. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for a bilirubin level draw.
(CORRECT ANSWER)
,D. Increase the infant's oral intake of sterile water.
Rationale: Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life is considered
pathological, not physiological. Given the Rh incompatibility, the infant is at
high risk for hemolytic disease, leading to a rapid rise in serum bilirubin and
potential for kernicterus. The priority is to notify the provider for immediate
assessment and intervention.
5. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is 2 days post-delivery. She is
crying and expresses feeling overwhelmed. She asks, "Why am I so emotional?"
Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "You need to focus on your baby, not your own feelings."
B. "This might be a sign of postpartum depression and needs to be treated."
C. "The sudden drop in your hormones after delivery often causes these mood
swings, which are usually normal and temporary." (CORRECT ANSWER)
D. "I can contact a social worker for you if you feel like you can't handle this."
Rationale: This scenario describes "postpartum blues," characterized by mood
swings, tearfulness, and anxiety, peaking on day 3-5. It is attributed to hormonal
changes, fatigue, and the stress of a new role. Providing education and
reassurance is appropriate. Postpartum depression is a more severe, persistent
condition.
6. A client with a history of herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) is in active labor.
A lesion is noted on her perineum. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer acyclovir as ordered.
B. Prepare the client for a cesarean section. (CORRECT ANSWER)
C. Initiate contact precautions.
D. Reassure the client and continue with the vaginal delivery.
, Rationale: Active genital herpes lesions are a primary indication for a cesarean
delivery to prevent neonatal exposure to the virus during vaginal birth. Neonatal
HSV infection is a severe condition with high morbidity and mortality. The
priority is to prevent vertical transmission by surgical delivery.
7. When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse places the Doppler device over
which part of the fetus?
A. The head
B. The buttocks
C. The back (CORRECT ANSWER)
D. The extremities
Rationale: The fetal heart sounds are best transmitted through the fetal back,
which typically is closest to the uterine wall in a vertex presentation (cephalic).
The nurse locates the back by palpation (Leopold's maneuvers) to find the point
of maximal intensity for fetal heart tones.
8. Which finding is most indicative of placental separation during the third stage of
labor?
A. A sudden gush of blood
B. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
C. Change in the shape of the uterus from discoid to globular
D. All of the above (CORRECT ANSWER)
Rationale: Signs of placental separation include a sudden gush of vaginal
bleeding, lengthening of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina, and a
change in the shape and consistency of the uterus (becoming firm, globular, and
rising in the abdomen). These are all classic indicators of placental detachment.
