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NR 304 Health Assessment II – Exam 1, Exam 2 & Final Exam (2025–2026) | 50+ Verified Q&A, Updated & Accurate

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NR 304 Health Assessment II – Exam 1, Exam 2 & Final Exam (2025–2026) | 50+ Verified Q&A, Updated & Accurate

Institution
NR 304 Health Assessment II
Course
NR 304 Health Assessment II

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NR 304 Health Assessment II – Exam 1,
Exam 2 & Final Exam (2025–2026) | 50+
Verified Q&A, Updated & Accurate

Exam 1: NR 304 Health Assessment II (15 Questions)
Focus: Musculoskeletal assessments (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis), basic neurological
assessments (e.g., reflexes, level of consciousness), and general physical assessment techniques.

Question 1: What is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Asymmetrical joint pain
B) Morning stiffness lasting >30 minutes
C) Heberden’s nodes
D) Pain that worsens with rest
Answer: B) Morning stiffness lasting >30 minutes
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis causes symmetrical joint inflammation with prolonged morning
stiffness (>30 minutes) ().

Question 2: True/False: The vertebra prominens is the spinous process of C7.
Answer: True
Rationale: The vertebra prominens (C7) is palpable at the base of the neck ().

Question 3: Fill-in-the-Blank: ___________ is the test used to assess for carpal tunnel
syndrome.
Answer: Phalen’s test
Rationale: Phalen’s test involves flexing the wrists at 90 degrees for 60 seconds to elicit
symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome ().

Question 4: Which assessment is included when evaluating increased intracranial pressure
(ICP)?
A) Deep tendon reflexes and sensory function
B) Level of consciousness, pupillary response, and vital signs
C) Cranial nerve function and coordination
D) Mental status and motor strength
Answer: B) Level of consciousness, pupillary response, and vital signs
Rationale: ICP assessment includes monitoring LOC, pupillary response, and vital signs as early
indicators ().

Question 5: True/False: Osteoarthritis is characterized by symmetrical joint involvement.
Answer: False
Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves asymmetrical joints, unlike rheumatoid arthritis ().

, Question 6: What does a positive Babinski reflex indicate in an adult?
A) Normal neurological function
B) Cerebellar dysfunction
C) Upper motor neuron lesion
D) Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: C) Upper motor neuron lesion
Rationale: A positive Babinski reflex (toes fanning upward) in adults indicates an upper motor
neuron lesion ().

Question 7: Fill-in-the-Blank: ___________ is the normal Glasgow Coma Scale score.
Answer: 15
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates normal neurological function ().

Question 8: True/False: Romberg’s test assesses cerebellar function.
Answer: True
Rationale: Romberg’s test evaluates balance and cerebellar function by having the client stand
with feet together and eyes closed ().

Question 9: Which finding indicates osteoporosis risk?
A) Increased bone density
B) Postmenopausal status
C) High BMI
D) Large joint swelling
Answer: B) Postmenopausal status
Rationale: Postmenopausal women are at higher risk for osteoporosis due to decreased estrogen
levels ().

Question 10: Fill-in-the-Blank: ___________ mediates reflexes in the body.
Answer: Spinal cord
Rationale: The spinal cord mediates reflex arcs, such as the patellar reflex ().

Question 11: True/False: A patient with a rotator cuff injury can typically perform abduction
without difficulty.
Answer: False
Rationale: A rotator cuff injury impairs shoulder abduction ().

Question 12: What is an expected finding in a healthy adult lung during percussion?
A) Dullness over lung fields
B) Resonance over lung fields
C) Hyperresonance over lung fields
D) Flatness over lung fields
Answer: B) Resonance over lung fields
Rationale: Resonance is the normal percussion sound over healthy lung tissue ().

Question 13: Which test assesses for a meniscal tear?
A) Phalen’s test

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NR 304 Health Assessment II
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NR 304 Health Assessment II

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