SEJPME PRE TEST AND POST TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS :LATEST

SEJPME PRE TEST AND POST TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS :LATESTSEJPME PRE TEST AND POST TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS The document approved by the Secretary of Defense for applying the Armed Forces of the United States in coordination with Department of Defense agencies and other instruments of national power to achieve national security strategy objectives is known as the The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the ____ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary's power, influence, and will. The ability of the United States to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness of the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are The statutory members of the National Security Council are ____. The ____ is the President's principal forum for considering national security policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to ____. The ____ outranks all other officers of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. He is the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the SECDEF. The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to ____. The term joint force commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders: A unified or specified command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a Joint force air component commander, joint force land component commander, and joint force maritime component commander are all examples of These commands are established by combatant commanders when authorized by the SECDEF through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for unified commands. ____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the SECDEF, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing JTF commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. Combatant Commanders exercise ____ (command authority) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred. The four categories of support are ____. Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned is known as ____. The command authority established by a superior commander between subordinate commanders when one organization should aid, protect, complement, or sustain another force is called ____. ____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. The _______ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these policies among various government agencies. _______ are responsible for coordinating with U.S. ambassadors in their AOR across the range of military operations. One way to remember the instruments of national power is by using the acronym, ________. The _______ is the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. The National Security Council is comprised of the following three levels of formal interagency committees for coordinating and making decisions on national security issues. The ______ acts as the honest "broker" among the many USG agencies to broker disagreements and achieve consensus among agencies on national security issues. Within the NSC, the purpose of the ______ is to maintain the day-to-day interagency cooperation; manage the development and implementation of national security policies by multiple agencies; provide policy analysis for consideration by senior committees; and, ensure timely responses to Presidential decisions. Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? Successful interagency coordination is a force multiplier that contributes to the achievement of a combatant commander's mission by _________________. The concept of ______ highlights the synergistic application of all the instruments of national power and includes the actions of non-military organizations as well as military forces. DOS assigns a ______ to combatant commanders and, increasingly, to JTF commanders, to provide foreign policy perspectives and to establish linkages with U.S. embassies in the AOR or JOA and with DOS. U.S. military forces are authorized under certain conditions to provide assistance to U.S. civil authorities for disasters, catastrophes, infrastructure protection, and other emergencies, and this assistance is known as ______ within the defense community because the assistance will always be in support of a lead federal agency. The supported combatant commander is responsible for developing ______, which covers Interagency Coordination, for each Operation Plan (OPLAN). This enables interagency planners to more rigorously plan their efforts in concert with the military, to suggest other activities or partners that could contribute to the operation, and to better determine any support requirements they may have. It is imperative that the combatant commander or JTF commander coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because, while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions. The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agencies (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. The Country Team provides for rapid interagency consultation and action on recommendations from the field and DOD is normally represented on the Country Team by the ______ and the ______ are independent, diverse, flexible, grassroots-focused, primary relief providers that are frequently on the scene before the U.S. military and will most likely remain long after military forces have departed. In most situations, IGOs and NGOs need the following military capabilities. The JTF commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a ______. The JTF commander should carefully consider where to locate the CMOC. Which of the following are valid considerations in determining the location? The JTF commander cannot dictate cooperation among OGAs, IGOs, and NGOs. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build consensus to achieve ______. The interagency support provided by a ______, composed of intelligence experts from DIA, CIA, NSA, NGA, and other intelligence agencies, affords the JTF access to national-level databases and to agency-unique information and analysis. By virtue of their familiarity in a foreign country or region, ______ are a valuable source of information for a JTF commander who may have neither access to nor current information about the affected country or region. A particular type of operation is not doctrinally fixed and could shift within the range of military operations, for example a counterinsurgency operation escalating from a security cooperation activity into a major operation or campaign. Combatant commanders and subordinate joint force commanders must work with U.S. ambassadors (or diplomatic missions), Department of State, and other agencies to best integrate the military actions with the diplomatic, economic, and informational instruments of national power to promote ________. The range of military operations includes these three categories of operations: (1) military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence; (2) crisis response and limited contingency operations; and ________. These operations are typically limited in scope and scale and conducted to achieve a very specific objective in an operational area. They include noncombatant evacuation operations, peace operations, foreign humanitarian assistance, recovery operations, consequence management, strikes, raids, homeland defense, and defense support of civil authorities. Various joint operations such as a show of force or sanctions enforcement support ________ by demonstrating national resolve and willingness to use force when necessary. The purpose of specifying the ________ is to direct every military operation toward a clearly defined, decisive, and achievable goal. The purpose of ________ is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. The purpose of ________ is to develop and maintain the will necessary to attain the national strategic end state. It is based on the legality, morality, and rightness of the actions undertaken. Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve, and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as ________ operations. Combating terrorism involves actions taken to oppose terrorism from wherever the threat exists, and encompasses ________ —defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist acts—and ________ —offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorism. ________ helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat of counteraction. It stems from the belief of a potential aggressor that a credible threat of retaliation exists, the contemplated action cannot succeed, or the costs outweigh any possible gains. At the strategic level, ________ encompasses those planning activities, such as continuity of operations and continuity of government, undertaken to ensure DOD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and SECDEF in a designated national security emergency. The DOD contribution to a unified action effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the USG is called ________. An operation that employs coercive measures to interdict the movement of certain types of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area is known as ________. A military operation to temporarily seize an area, usually through forcible entry, in order to secure information, confuse an adversary, capture personnel or equipment, or destroy an objective or capability is called a ________. It ends with a planned withdrawal upon completion of the assigned mission. Military operations that apply military force or threaten its use, normally pursuant to international authorization, to compel compliance with resolutions or sanctions designed to maintain or restore peace and order are known as ________ operations. Pursuant to Executive Order 12656, the ________ is responsible for the protection and evacuation of American citizens abroad and for safeguarding their property. In foreign humanitarian assistance operations, commanders usually establish a ________ because it is critical to working with the participating intergovernmental organizations (IGOs) and nongovernmental organizations (NGOs). Operations conducted to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel, sensitive equipment, items critical to national security, or human remains are known as ________. An operation that employs coercive measures to interdict the movement of certain types of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area is known as ________. Joint force commanders strive to isolate enemies by denying them ________. The intent is to strip away as much enemy support or freedom of action as possible, while limiting the enemy's potential for horizontal or vertical escalation. Preplanned, deterrence-oriented actions carefully tailored to bring an issue to early resolution without armed conflict are known as ________. Joint force commanders must integrate and synchronize offensive, defensive, and stability operations that comprise major operations and campaigns. Planning for stability operations should begin ________. Although ________ may be the stronger force posture, it is the ________ that is normally decisive in combat. Therefore, commanders will normally seek to transition to the decisive operations at the earliest opportunity. A joint military operation conducted either as a major operation or a part of a larger campaign to seize and hold a military lodgment in the face of armed opposition for the continuous landing of forces is called ________. These operations may include amphibious, airborne, and air assault operations, or any combination thereof. The ultimate measure of success in peace building is ________. Therefore, joint force commanders seek a clear understanding of the national and coalition strategic end state and how military operations support that end state. Major operation and campaign plans must feature a(n) ________ offensive, defensive, and stability operations in all phases. The responsibility to plan and coordinate U.S. government efforts in stabilization and reconstruction has been assigned to ________. The two types of joint operation planning are ________. They differ primarily in the amount of available planning time and products. Planning in an adaptive planning environment using APEX supports the systematic, on-demand, creation and revision of executable plans, with up-todate options, as circumstances require. A premium is placed on _______. Planning activities associated with joint military operations by combatant commanders and their subordinate joint force commanders in response to contingencies and crises are known as ________. It includes planning for the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization of joint forces. With respect to strategic planning documents, the SECDEF provides overarching guidance for planning in the ________ and supplementary Strategic Guidance Statements (SGS) for top priority plans. In Deliberate Planning, the strategic planning documents include all of the following except ________. Those headquarters, commands, and agencies involved in joint operation planning or committed to a joint operation are collectively termed the ________. APEX activities span many organizational levels, but the focus is on the interaction between ________, which ultimately helps the President and SECDEF decide when, where, and how to commit U.S. military forces. The operational activity of ________ does not apply to Deliberate Planning, but the other two do. This is a complete and detailed joint plan containing a full description of the CONOPS, all annexes applicable to the plan, and a TPFDD. The primary product of the Plan Development function is an approved ________. Deliberate Planning is normally initiated by a tasking in the ________. It is based on assigned planning guidance, derived assumptions, and apportioned forces. The seven steps of the ________ follow the sequence of the general problem solving process. It is used for both deliberate planning and crisis action planning. Deliberate Planning encompasses the preparation of plans for non-crisis situations. It is used to develop ________ for a broad range of activities based on requirements identified in the GEF, JSCP, or other planning directive. Deliberate Planning features a series of periodic ________ that constitute a disciplined dialogue among strategic leaders, specifically the combatant commanders Contingency plans are best understood as ________ to the overarching global or theater campaign plan. After a contingency plan is approved in deliberate planning. These supporting plans are normally reviewed and approved by the ________. The mission is the task or set of tasks, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason for doing so. The ________, JSCP, and related Strategic Guidance Statements (for top priority plans) serve as the primary guidance to begin Deliberate Planning. The ________ is an orderly, analytical planning process, which consists of a set of seven (7) logical steps to examine a mission; Assumptions must be continually reviewed to ensure validity. A valid assumption has three characteristics: ________. The process of war gaming provides a means for the commander and staff to analyze friendly COAs by comparing them against anticipated adversary COAs A common, proven technique during COA Comparison is the decision matrix, which uses evaluation criteria to assess the effectiveness of each COA. Operations conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is no broad conventional force requirement are known as ________. Elite, highly trained military units that conduct operations that typically exceed the capabilities of conventional forces are known as ________. Special operations are a integral part of the geographic combatant commander´s theater campaign plan. Special operations must complement not compete with nor be a substitute for - conventional operations. Special Operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve ________ objectives. Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments Special operations forces are organized under the ________, a functional combatant command Actions conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in leading the DOD effort in ________. Most special operations forces are ________ oriented. This allows them to maintain a cultural awareness and a language capability for their assigned areas. A broad spectrum of military and paramilitary operations, normally of long duration, predominantly conducted through, with, or by indigenous or surrogate forces Military-political considerations frequently cast Special Operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the ________ level. The Army Special Forces A-Team is capable of conducting operations in remote and hostile areas for extended periods of time; however, it has minimal ________. The ________ is the premier light, airborne, infantry unit of the U.S. Army The unique unit that provides support to special operations forces personnel on a worldwide basis with specially equipped helicopters is the ________. The units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the area of operations are known as ________. The units manned by Special Warfare Combatant-craft Crewmen who operate and maintain state-of-the-art surface craft to conduct coastal patrol and interdiction and support special operations missions are known as ________. The 193rd Special Operations Wing of the Pennsylvania Air National Guard provides the only ________ platform in the Department of Defense with the EC130 Commando Solo. The Air Force´s Battlefield Airmen or ________ Teams frequently operate with Navy SEALs, Army Rangers, and Special Forces in direct action, airfield seizure, and personnel recovery missions in hostile territory. Each geographic combatant command has a ________ to plan and control joint special operations forces in their areas of responsibility. When required, the joint task force commander may establish a ______, which is a temporary joint special operations forces command formed to conduct special operations in a specific joint operations area. Which one of the following is NOT a limitation of special operations forces? Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small part of the total force - a little over ________ percent of the total force. In joint SOF mission planning, a demanding full-up, real-time ________ can mitigate much of the inherent risks of many SOF missions. It is key to the success of complex joint SOF missions. Which of the following is not one of the SOF Truths? A traumatically induced structural injury and/or physiological disruption of brain function as a result of an external force defines a ________. Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building ________. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is known as ________. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. Symptoms of ________ include depression, difficulties in social or family life, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. One of the Navy's MOOTW roles is to enforce United Nations economic sanctions. While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps' purview. Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. Aerospace Forces produce synergistic effects that are designed not to exceed separately employed individual forces The US Army's adaptation to new technologies was a result of the federal government nurturing the arms industry after the Revolutionary War, spurred by Eli Whitney's invention of interchangeable parts which made standardized gun design possible. Established in 1798, the US Navy and Marine Corps was created to protect American interests overseas and support maritime free trade. Answer It was Lt. Col. Earl H. "Pete" Ellis's post-WWI Advanced Base Operations in Micronesia, 1921 document that gave birth to the Marine Corps' amphibious doctrine. By 1986, the MPS program had in place 13 ships: one squadron in the Eastern Atlantic, a second squadron at Diego Garcia in the Indian Ocean, and a third at Guam in the Western Pacific. The comprehensive doctrine of air warfare supported the conclusion that highaltitude, daylight bombing of an enemy's war-supporting industries and transportation systems could win a war. USCG has always served under the Secretary of the Treasury, reflecting its early historical mission the USCG's motto is Semper Paratus meaning "always ready" It is not customary during Dining-In to hear an address by a distinguished guest. The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine "over the water," an historical reference to James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine's name or grade, "Marine" is as appropriate as "Good morning, Sir," in the case of an officer. The main difference between Dining-In and Mess Night for Marines is that spouses and other non-military guests may attend a Dining-In Promotions and Re-enlistments are ceremonies requiring formation in this order: (a) Personal awards presented first, (b) Promotions second, and (c) Reenlistments third. Dining-In and Dining-Out represent the most formal aspects of Air Force social life. Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought onboard to combat the rat population. Which document spells out the broad responsibilities or missions of the combatant commanders? What is the Army's primary role? The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? 1) The units manned by Special Warfare Combatant-craft Crewmen who operate and maintain a variety of combatant and other craft for maritime special operations are known as _____. SEAL Platoons Special Tactics Groups SEAL Delivery Teams Special Boat Teams (correct) 2) During joint operation planning, joint force commanders should begin to coordinate their activities with other agencies _____. when the combatant commander authorizes the plan after the operation plan has been finalized as early as possible (correct) 4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. Service component command combatant command joint task force (correct) subordinate unified command 5) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, self-discipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [Remediation Accessed :N] Peacekeeping operations (correct) 6) Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted with specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets in hostile, denied, or diplomatically and/or politically sensitive environments is called _____. It differs from other offensive actions in the level of diplomatic or political risk, the operational techniques employed, and the degree of discriminate and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives. special reconnaissance unconventional warfare direct action (correct) the Coast Guard operates in inland, coastal, and deepwater regions (correct) the Coast Guard operates in inland and coastal regions the Coast Guard operates in Coastal and deepwater regions 8) When tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation were worked out, on whose experiences were they based? (Select all that apply.) Germany's Luftwaffe (correct) Wright Brothers Royal Air Force (correct) 9) The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and then to the combatant commanders combatant commanders (correct) a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information (correct) 11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined? (Select all that apply.) Revenue Cutter Service (correct) Steamboat Inspection Service Bureau of Navigation Life-Saving Service (correct) embargo trade and blockade (correct) extract without foundering and unload troops while maintaining stern to the surf move forward from the sea and seize ports (correct) 15) Which type of mobilization entails mobilizing all Reserve Component units in the existing approved force structure, as well as all individual reservists, retired military personnel, and the resources needed to meet requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, and is for the duration of the emergency plus six months? partial mobilization (PM) full mobilization (FM) (correct) Guidance for Employment of the Force (correct) proportionality (correct) 22) Joint force commanders coordinate with other government agencies to facilitate coherent use of all instruments of national power in achieving national strategic objectives. refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour (correct) return the embarrassment in kind ignore it as any self-generated entertainment 24) The country team provides for rapid interagency consultation and action on recommendations from the field. The Department of Defense is normally represented on the country team by the _____ and the _____. defense attache, foreign policy advisor political advisor, joint interagency coordination group marine security detachment, security assistance organization defense attache, security cooperation organization (correct) 25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? honor commitment courage (correct) National Security Advisor Combatant Commander Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (correct) Marines (correct) Knowing the people around you (correct) Knowing how to solve problems (correct) Having competence in your area of the Service (correct) 30) In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? amphibious assault provide materiel needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone (correct) 31) The United Nations, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe, and the African Union are all examples of _____. [Remediation Accessed :N] international agencies intergovernmental organizations (correct) Operational risk management (correct) intergovernmental organizations (IGOs) (correct) close supervision time to develop clear rules of engagement cooperation (correct) Predictability (correct) 37) In joint SOF mission planning, a demanding full-up, real-time _____ can mitigate much of the inherent risks of many Special Operations Forces (SOF) missions. It is key to the success of complex joint SOF missions. rehearsal (correct) to organize forces (correct) to retain forces to equip forces (correct) to train forces (correct) 39) During the ceremony of the Ancient Mariner, the new Ancient Mariner must wear _____. (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N] fore and aft style hat (correct) Revenue Cutter log book (correct) nautical long glass (correct) gold braided shoulder epaulets (correct) eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments (correct) training of foreign militaries (correct) major combat operations (correct) humanitarian assistance (correct) 44) The U.S. employs the military instrument of national power at home and abroad in support of its national security goals. The ultimate purpose of the U.S. Armed Forces is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N] support and defend U.S. allies and partners fight and win the Nation's wars (correct) rotation (correct) leader development and national interests (correct) United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) (correct) United States Pacific Command (USPACOM) (correct) United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) (correct) None of the answers are correct 50) The concept of "Jointness" must be advanced through continual joint force development efforts. What does that statement imply? Joint force development is a "one time" occurrence in one's career. Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development. "Jointness" is not an automatic service state of being. (correct) Service members naturally embrace "Jointness." Top of Form Post Test (contains 50 questions) Here is your test result.The dots represent the choices you have made. The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed. Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.'N' represents links not visited and 'Y' represents visited links. 1.) The term "scuttlebutt" is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. True False 2.) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed: N] to train forces to retain forces to equip forces to organize forces 3.) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. foreign internal defense unconventional warfare strategic reporting special reconnaissance 4.) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation 5.) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. rotation transition influence situational awareness 6.) Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise _____. risk supervision disciplined initiative cautious power regularly 7.) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine, "over the water," an historical reference to King James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. True False 8.) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United States? 7 8 6 5 9.) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these policies among various government agencies. National Economic Council National Security Council Homeland Security Council Foreign Affairs Council 10.) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? "Semper Fideles" "Anchors Aweigh" "Semper Paratus" 11.) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? late in the planning process early in the planning process somewhere - early, mid, or later - as long as they are included after all of the planning is completed 12.) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. draft an action plan report the problem to the commanding officer define the problem gather multiple perspectives on the problem 13.) Which of the following are primary functions of the Marine Corps according to DoD Directive 5100.01? organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea, including sea-based and land- based aviation provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases all of the answers are correct 14.) Which of the following are expected of every Marine in battle? (Select all that apply.) no wounded or dead Marine will ever be left on the field or unattended, regardless of the cost of bringing him in competence courage resolution 15.) Commanders at all levels must take a proactive approach to fighting fraud, waste, and abuse (FWA) and to conserving resources. Failure to do so can undermine the commander's legitimacy to conduct military operations in a foreign environment and at home. True False 16.) Reserve Component leaders agree that they receive adequate funding to support all levels of operational use identified by Service and Department of Defense plans. True False 17.) The term joint force commander refers exclusively to the following three types of commanders: combatant commander, Service component commander, and functional component commander combatant commander, subordinate unified commander, and joint task force commander Service component commander, combatant commander, and joint task force commander joint task force commander, functional component commander, and subunified commander 18.) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed: N] Chief of Mission (COM) Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) Political Advisor (POLAD) Liaison Officer (LNO) 19.) Which organization is the principal policy-making forum responsible for the nation's security strategy? Department of Homeland Security (DHS) U.S. Congress National Security Council (NSC) Department of Defense (DoD) 20.) Which of the following are among Air Force customs, courtesies, and traditions designed to provide high morale? (Select all that apply.) The Grog Bowl Dining-In, Dining-Out, and Combat Dining-In The Order of the Sword Hail and Farewell 21.) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed: N] when directed by the President when ordered by the Secretary of Defense upon a declaration of war 22.) The earliest form of the Coast Guard began on 4 August 1790, when President George Washington authorized the construction of ten vessels to _____. map the coastal territories of the United States defend the coastal waters and harbors of the United States prevent smuggling provide rescue to passengers of damaged or sinking ships 23.) As ratified, the U.S. Constitution provided for a small professional army supplemented a militia of all able-bodied males under strict civilian control. True False 24.) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____. none of the answers are correct the Army National Guard the Army Reserve both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve 25.) Why was the participation of the Montford Point Marines in the amphibious assault at Saipan such a historic event? the marines were well-trained it represented the final and full integration of the Armed Forces no Higgins boats were available 26.) Two key traits that define a "professional" are _____ and _____. knowledge, innovation truth, justice service, sacrifice character, competence 27.) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities. Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC) Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC) Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF) Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC) 28.) In the past, there has been a(n)________ associated with seeking care for psychological health concerns. Although it remains a problem, today, seeking medical assistance from a mental health care provider is not a career ender. Service members should seek help the same way they would if they had a physical wound. reward investigation stigma apprehension 29.) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others' experiences - both positive and negative. [objective101] [Remediation Accessed: N] know all of the facts acknowledge our own prejudice critically think about seek out professional assistance support the United States' Security Strategy. Accessed: N] True False 31.) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases. True False 32.) The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and then to the combatant commanders Service chiefs Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff combatant commanders 33.) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to share _____ with all team members. [objective99] [Remediation Accessed: N] workload credit ideas effort 34.) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) escort carriers long-range reconnaissance planes anti-submarine weapons direction-finding equipment destroyers equipped with advanced sonars 35.) _____ helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat of counteraction. It stems from the belief of a potential aggressor that a credible threat of retaliation exists, the contemplated action cannot succeed, or the costs outweigh any possible gains. Security cooperation Deception Military engagement Deterrence 36.) Where long-term problems precede a deepening crisis, non-governmental organizations are frequently on the scene before the U.S. military and are willing to operate in high-risk areas. True False 37.) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while maintaining U.S. global influence. military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities strikes and raids major combat operations forcible entry operations 38.) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces. True False 39.) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the ability to adhere to beliefs, principles, or values needed to persevere and prevail in accomplishing missions. [objective105] [Remediation Accessed: N] Psychological Fitness Spiritual Fitness Behavioral Fitness Nutritional Fitness 40.) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed: N] consensus compromise coordination communication 41.) Delegating execution authority to responsible and capable lower-level commanders is essential to which of the following roles of Air Force commander or command groups? both of the answers are correct fostering initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility achieving effective span of control 42.) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day, year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed: N] Defense Readiness missions Marine Safety missions Search and Rescue missions Deepwater missions 43.) The _____ is a lethal, agile, and flexible force, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives. 82nd Airborne Division 75th Ranger Regiment 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault) 44.) The _____ is written guidance from the Secretary of Defense to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff for the preparation and review of contingency plans for specific missions. It includes the relative priority of the plans, specific force levels, and supporting resource levels. [objective59] [Remediation Accessed: N] Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan Guidance for Employment of the Force National Defense Plan Unified Command Plan 45.) Joint education can be broadly parsed into three categories: Joint Professional Military Education (JPME), Enlisted Joint Professional Military Education (EJPME), other Joint Education. True False 46.) Which organization monitors suspected drug trafficking aircraft and maritime vessels? National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency North American Aerospace Defense Command Joint Interagency Task Force Defense Information Systems Agency 47.) A(n) _____ is a relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives, while _____ is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action, usually for a single occasion. alliance, coalition alliance, partnership partnership, coalition coalition, alliance 48.) The 1986 Goldwater-Nichols Act _____. clarified the chain of command and civilian control of the U.S. Military provided that the Chief of the National Guard Bureau full membership of the Joint Chiefs of Staff added the Commandant of the Marine Corps as a permanent and participating member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 49.) U.S. Forces conduct security cooperation activities to _____. establish fly zones over non coalition territory demonstrate global dominance disrupt regional stability lend credibility to its alliances and demonstrate U.S. commitment responding to crises preparing now for an uncertain future secure the United States from direct attack shaping the international environment Bottom of Form Post Test (contains 11 questions) • Here is your test result.The dots represent the choices you have made. • The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed. • Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.'N' represents links not visited and 'Y' represents visited links. 1.) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation. True False 2.) The country team provides for rapid interagency consultation and action on recommendations from the field. The Department of Defense is normally represented on the country team by the _____ and the _____. defense attache, security cooperation organization defense attache, foreign policy advisor political advisor, joint interagency coordination group marine security detachment, security assistance organization 3.) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of the U.S. Navy? True False 4.) _____ is a hostile environment that often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. [objective101] [Remediation Accessed: N] Irregular warfare environment Humanitarian assistance operations Support for civil authorities Major combat operations 5.) What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.) establish favorable security conditions secure the United States from direct attack strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action maturity delegation of authority experience 7.) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. Which one of the following IS NOT one of the eight domains? Organizational Fitness Environmental Fitness Psychological Fitness Spiritual Fitness 8.) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken to _____. [objective70] [Remediation Accessed: N] ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of any one location 9.) Which of the following describes the role of the Coast Guard in the U.S.'s maritime regions? the Coast Guard operates in Coastal and deepwater regions the Coast Guard operates in inland and coastal regions the Coast Guard operates in inland, coastal, and deepwater regions 10.) The document, approved by the President, which delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders, is called the _____. Unified Command Plan National Security Strategy Guidance for Employment of the Force Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan 11.) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) humanitarian assistance training of foreign militaries cyberspace operations major combat operations 16) Ethical conduct in the procurement process is particularly important to ensure fair and competitive in-theater acquisition efforts and ensure these processes do not have a negative impact on the JFC's mission. Problems affecting any aspect of the acquisition process can affect timely provision of support to the commander and in some cases negatively impact the civil-military aspects of the operation or organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases False 23) Deploying the U.S. Navy to stop pirates from raiding shipping lanes in the Indian Ocean would fall under which fundamental role of the National Naval Strategy? (Select all that apply.) [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N] securing the United States from direct attack securing strategic access and retaining global freedom of action establishing favorable security conditions strengthening exciting and emerging alliances and partnerships 24) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others' experiences - both positive and negative. [objective101] seek out professional assistance acknowledge our own prejudice know all of the facts critically think about 25) The President of the U.S. provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the _____. [objective59] Unified Command Plan National Military Strategy National Defense Strategy National Security Strategy 26) The 193rd Special Operations Wing of the Pennsylvania Air National Guard provides the only _____ platform in the Department of Defense with the EC-130 Commando Solo. [objective94] airborne psychological operations airborne early warning combat aviation advisor electronic warfare 27) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective83] Transportation Security Administration Steamboat Inspection Service Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service Life Saving Service Bureau of Navigation 28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] upon a declaration of war when directed by the President when ordered by the Secretary of Defense 29) The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the combatant commanders (CCDRs) of the _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective57] United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) None of the answers are correct United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) United States Pacific Command (USPACOM) 30) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N] Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Secretary of Defense Service Chiefs Joint Chiefs of Staff 31) Which of the following are among Air Force customs, courtesies, and traditions designed to provide high morale? (Select all that apply.) [objective87] The Grog Bowl Hail and Farewell Dining-In, Dining-Out, and Combat Dining-In The Order of the Sword 32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62] it is rarely effective no one is in charge it is often time-consuming it can be cumbersome 33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] Chief of Mission (COM) Political Advisor (POLAD) Liaison Officer (LNO) Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) 34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. Combatant Command (COCOM) Administrative Control (ADCON) to train and equip itself for the overwhelming and synchronized application of land combat power Lead Nation Command Structure