CEA FNP Full Exam Practice Test: NR667 / NR 667 (Latest 2026 / 2027) FNP Capstone Practicum and Intensive | Questions with Verified Answers & Rationale| 100% Correct Chamberlain.

CEA FNP Full Exam Practice Test: NR667 /
NR 667 (Latest ) FNP Capstone
Practicum and Intensive | Questions with
Verified Answers & Rationale| 100% Correct
Chamberlain.
Question:
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
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dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
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venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the
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most likely diagnosis?? i,- i,-




Answer:

Congestive heart failure i,- i,-




Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
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congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up
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with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
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suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have
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an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient
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has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
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orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
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appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
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Question:

,Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
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fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
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medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
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admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
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the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will manage
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this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect
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to be a priority in the patient's care??
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Answer:

Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less
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than 35% i,-




Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
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implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the
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EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with
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low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD
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in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo
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in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by
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most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to
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provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
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Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
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A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient
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as presented.
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Question:

Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac
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disease??

Answer:

,Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American
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Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
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hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians. i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




Question:

A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a
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smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with
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medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting
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lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In
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addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner
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should start the patient on:?
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Answer:

a statin drug.
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Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may
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be useful in reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker
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with premature coronary disease history (less than age 65 for women), has
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hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly a
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candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive
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therapy option of these four listed.
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Question:

Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by
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uncontrolled hypertension?? i,-




Answer:

, Peripheral neuropathy i,-




Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral
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neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic
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and is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria,
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AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
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hypertension.




Question:

Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the
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following except?? i,-




Answer:
Genetic predisposition i,-




Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all
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represent modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive
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care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family
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history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
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Question:
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism,
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and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH
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ratio > 2:1. What is the most appropriate initial treatment??
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Answer:

Oral contraceptives
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