Relias Medical-Surgical Telemetry Exam Study
Guide 2026 PDF for Nurses and Healthcare
Professionals | Cardiac Monitoring, ECG Rhythm
Interpretation, Dysrhythmia Recognition,
Hemodynamic Stability, Patient Assessment,
Medication Management and Clinical Decision-
Making | Comprehensive Telemetry Nursing Exam
Preparation to Strengthen Critical Thinking and
Improve Test Performance
Question 1:
What is the primary purpose of telemetry monitoring?
A. Evaluate renal function
B. Monitor cardiac rhythms
C. Assess respiratory status
D. Measure blood pressure
• Correct Option: B. Monitor cardiac rhythms
• Rationale: Telemetry monitoring primarily focuses on continuous observation of
a patient's cardiac rhythm to quickly identify any abnormalities that might
require medical intervention.
Question 2:
Which arrhythmia is characterized by a rapid heartbeat and a narrow QRS
complex?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Atrial flutter
C. Supraventricular tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
• Correct Option: C. Supraventricular tachycardia
• Rationale: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is characterized by a rapid heart
rate (often over 100 beats per minute) with a narrow QRS complex, indicating
that the arrhythmia originates above the ventricles.
Question 3:
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing symptomatic
bradycardia?
,A. Administer diuretics
B. Apply supplemental oxygen
C. Prepare for possible atropine administration
D. Initiate CPR immediately
• Correct Option: C. Prepare for possible atropine administration
• Rationale: Atropine is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia by
increasing heart rate. It is important for nurses to be prepared to administer this
medication in response to a patient's symptoms.
Question 4:
Which of the following is a sign of possible myocardial infarction?
A. Elevated blood glucose
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Sudden dizziness
D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
• Correct Option: D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
• Rationale: Chest pain that radiates to the left arm is a classic symptom of
myocardial infarction (heart attack), and identifying this symptom early is crucial
for effective treatment.
Question 5:
What is the critical range for a patient's potassium level to minimize the risk of
arrhythmias?
A. 3.0 - 4.0 mEq/L
B. 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L
C. 5.5 - 6.0 mEq/L
D. 6.5 - 7.0 mEq/L
• Correct Option: B. 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L
• Rationale: Potassium levels between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L are considered within
the normal range and are critical for proper cardiac function and minimizing the
risk of arrhythmias.
Question 6:
What is the primary indicator of adequate cardiac output?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
,C. Urine output
D. Respiratory rate
• Correct Option: C. Urine output
• Rationale: Adequate urine output (typically 0.5 mL/kg/hr) indicates sufficient
cardiac output and renal perfusion, which are essential for maintaining
homeostasis.
Question 7:
Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with hypertension?
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Lisinopril
D. Furosemide
• Correct Option: C. Lisinopril
• Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor often prescribed to control high blood
pressure and protect renal function.
Question 8:
What should the nurse assess first in a patient returning from surgery with
telemetry monitoring?
A. Pain level
B. Heart rhythm
C. Surgical site
D. IV fluid rate
• Correct Option: B. Heart rhythm
• Rationale: Monitoring heart rhythm is critical to identify any immediate
complications post-surgery, especially for patients at risk for cardiac issues.
Question 9:
Which electrolyte imbalance can lead to Torsades de Pointes?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
, • Correct Option: C. Hypomagnesemia
• Rationale: Low magnesium levels can precipitate Torsades de Pointes, a life-
threatening form of ventricular tachycardia.
Question 10:
What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate?
A. 40-60 bpm
B. 60-80 bpm
C. 60-100 bpm
D. 100-120 bpm
• Correct Option: C. 60-100 bpm
• Rationale: A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per
minute.
Question 11:
What is the primary concern with atrial fibrillation?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Palpitations
C. Risk of thromboembolism
D. Hypertension
• Correct Option: C. Risk of thromboembolism
• Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clot formation in the atria,
leading to potential thromboembolic events like stroke.
Question 12:
Which finding is characteristic of heart failure?
A. Bradycardia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperventilation
• Correct Option: B. Peripheral edema
• Rationale: Peripheral edema occurs in heart failure due to fluid overload and
poor cardiac output, indicating that the body is retaining fluid.
Guide 2026 PDF for Nurses and Healthcare
Professionals | Cardiac Monitoring, ECG Rhythm
Interpretation, Dysrhythmia Recognition,
Hemodynamic Stability, Patient Assessment,
Medication Management and Clinical Decision-
Making | Comprehensive Telemetry Nursing Exam
Preparation to Strengthen Critical Thinking and
Improve Test Performance
Question 1:
What is the primary purpose of telemetry monitoring?
A. Evaluate renal function
B. Monitor cardiac rhythms
C. Assess respiratory status
D. Measure blood pressure
• Correct Option: B. Monitor cardiac rhythms
• Rationale: Telemetry monitoring primarily focuses on continuous observation of
a patient's cardiac rhythm to quickly identify any abnormalities that might
require medical intervention.
Question 2:
Which arrhythmia is characterized by a rapid heartbeat and a narrow QRS
complex?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Atrial flutter
C. Supraventricular tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
• Correct Option: C. Supraventricular tachycardia
• Rationale: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is characterized by a rapid heart
rate (often over 100 beats per minute) with a narrow QRS complex, indicating
that the arrhythmia originates above the ventricles.
Question 3:
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing symptomatic
bradycardia?
,A. Administer diuretics
B. Apply supplemental oxygen
C. Prepare for possible atropine administration
D. Initiate CPR immediately
• Correct Option: C. Prepare for possible atropine administration
• Rationale: Atropine is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia by
increasing heart rate. It is important for nurses to be prepared to administer this
medication in response to a patient's symptoms.
Question 4:
Which of the following is a sign of possible myocardial infarction?
A. Elevated blood glucose
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Sudden dizziness
D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
• Correct Option: D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
• Rationale: Chest pain that radiates to the left arm is a classic symptom of
myocardial infarction (heart attack), and identifying this symptom early is crucial
for effective treatment.
Question 5:
What is the critical range for a patient's potassium level to minimize the risk of
arrhythmias?
A. 3.0 - 4.0 mEq/L
B. 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L
C. 5.5 - 6.0 mEq/L
D. 6.5 - 7.0 mEq/L
• Correct Option: B. 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L
• Rationale: Potassium levels between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L are considered within
the normal range and are critical for proper cardiac function and minimizing the
risk of arrhythmias.
Question 6:
What is the primary indicator of adequate cardiac output?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
,C. Urine output
D. Respiratory rate
• Correct Option: C. Urine output
• Rationale: Adequate urine output (typically 0.5 mL/kg/hr) indicates sufficient
cardiac output and renal perfusion, which are essential for maintaining
homeostasis.
Question 7:
Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with hypertension?
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Lisinopril
D. Furosemide
• Correct Option: C. Lisinopril
• Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor often prescribed to control high blood
pressure and protect renal function.
Question 8:
What should the nurse assess first in a patient returning from surgery with
telemetry monitoring?
A. Pain level
B. Heart rhythm
C. Surgical site
D. IV fluid rate
• Correct Option: B. Heart rhythm
• Rationale: Monitoring heart rhythm is critical to identify any immediate
complications post-surgery, especially for patients at risk for cardiac issues.
Question 9:
Which electrolyte imbalance can lead to Torsades de Pointes?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
, • Correct Option: C. Hypomagnesemia
• Rationale: Low magnesium levels can precipitate Torsades de Pointes, a life-
threatening form of ventricular tachycardia.
Question 10:
What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate?
A. 40-60 bpm
B. 60-80 bpm
C. 60-100 bpm
D. 100-120 bpm
• Correct Option: C. 60-100 bpm
• Rationale: A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per
minute.
Question 11:
What is the primary concern with atrial fibrillation?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Palpitations
C. Risk of thromboembolism
D. Hypertension
• Correct Option: C. Risk of thromboembolism
• Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clot formation in the atria,
leading to potential thromboembolic events like stroke.
Question 12:
Which finding is characteristic of heart failure?
A. Bradycardia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperventilation
• Correct Option: B. Peripheral edema
• Rationale: Peripheral edema occurs in heart failure due to fluid overload and
poor cardiac output, indicating that the body is retaining fluid.
