ABCOP Orthotics Written Exam (Latest Version 2026/2027) – Updated with Accurate Solutions | 100% correct

ABCOP Orthotics Written Exam (Latest Version 2026/2027) – Updated with Accurate Solutions | 100% correct Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? a. Initial contact b. Mid-swing c. Terminal stance d. Push off c. Terminal stance Throughout terminal stance the ankle and foot are the critical sites of action. At the onset of heel rise the ankle drops into the maximum dorsiflexion (10 degrees) occurring in stance. A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from: a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side ipsilateral = same side During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? a. Loading response b. Midstance c. Pre-swing d. Terminal stance a. Loading response Slows progression of limb and prevents knee from moving into flexion Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior? a. Tibialis posterior b. Peroneus longus c. Extensor hallucis longus d. Extensor digitorum longus c. Extensor hallucis longus The tibialis anterior dorsiflexes and inverts the foot. The EHL also dorsiflexes and inverts the foots as well as extends the hallux. Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth? a. Gower's sign b. Down syndrome c. Erb's palsy d. Spina bifida c. Erb's palsy Gower's sign is a maneuver. Down syndrome is chromosomal. Spina bifida occurs during the first month of pregnancy. Erb's palsy occurs from traumatic force downward on the upper arm and shoulder during birth. Which of the following is inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord? a. Cerebral palsy b. Meningitis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Pleuritis b. Meningitis Meningitis is a bacterial or viral infection of the fluid surrounding the brain and spinal cord usually causes the swelling. What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis? a. Bone b. Collagen c. Ligament d. Cartilage d. Cartilage What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction? a. Bursa b. Synovium c. Ganglia d. Nucleus Pulposis a. Bursa What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO? a. L1 b. Spine of the scapula c. Inferior angle of the scapula d. Superior angle of the scapula b. Spine of the scapula Prescribed for counteracting kyphosis and produces extension in the sagittal plane. A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening of the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this? a. Right posterior brachycephaly b. Right posterior plagiocephaly c. Left posterior brachycephaly d. Left posterior plagiocephaly d. Left posterior plagiocephaly Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints? a. L2 spinal cord injury b. Damage to the femoral nerve c. Moderate knee flexion contracture d. Genu varum deformity d. Genu varum deformity Deformity is in the frontal plane so stability in the sagittal plane is not a concern. What type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy? a. Neuromuscular scoliosis b. Congenital scoliosis c. Nonstructural scoliosis d. Idiopathic scoliosis c. Nonstructural scoliosis The leg length discrepancy causes a pelvic obliquity and nonstructural scoliosis develops to compensate. Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a plantarflexion contracture? a. Late heel rise at terminal stance b. Genu recurvatum at midstance c. Increased knee flexion at loading response d. Reduced knee flexion at midswing b. Genu recurvatum at midstance Late heel rise is due to weak plantarflexors. Increased knee flexion would come from increased dorsiflexion. Reduced knee flexion would be a result of weak quadriceps. A plantarflexion contractures forces the knee into hyperextension, or genu recurvatum. True dorsiflexion and plantarflexion occur in what plane? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Frontal d. Transverse a. Sagittal What orthosis would best restore upper extremity function for a patient with a spinal cord injury above the C6 nerve root? a. Cock up splint b. Mobile arm support c. Wrist driven WHO d. HO with thumb post c. Wrist driven WHO The nerves at the C6 level innervate the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis. These two muscles are located in the forearm and allow for wrist extension. While a C6 injury will affect the fingers and hands, the patient will maintain wrist extension. This device will give the potential to grasp or hold objects through reciprocal wrist extension and finger flexion. What is most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist? a. WHO b. WHO with C bar c. HO d. WHO with thumb post d. WHO with thumb post The median nerve innervates the muscles involved with wrist flexion, MCP flexion at the index and middle fingers, and thumb opposition, adduction, and abduction. A WHO with a thumb post will prevent flexion at the wrist, MCP, and thumb and allow for the median nerve injury to heal. The primary function of the brachioradialis is: a. Elbow flexion, wrist extension b. Elbow flexion c. Supination, wrist extension d. Wrist radial deviation b. Elbow flexion In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the: a. Teres minor b. Teres major c. Short head of the Triceps brachii d. Subscapularis a. Teres minor Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Coding should be done based on your experience as a clinician b. It is the office administrator's responsibility to determine accurate coding c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services d. Correctly completed coding should generate the maximum revenue c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services The axis of the hip joint is located: a. Anterior and superior to the greater trochanter b. Posterior and superior to the greater trochanter c. Anterior and inferior to the greater trochanter d. Posterior and inferior to the greater trochanter a. Anterior and superior to the greater trochanter Which is not considered an upper motor neuron disease or injury? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Cerebral palsy c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Cerebrovascular accident c. Diabetic neuropathy Aponeurosis is: a. A flat broad tendon b. A thin tendon sheath c. A membrane dividing muscle components d. A synovial joint lining b. A thin tendon sheath Multiple layers of thin, delicate sheaths make up an aponeurosis. The plantar fascia is an example of an aponeurosis. Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as: a. A fracture of the pars articularis b. Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebrae in relation to the sacrum c. Anterior displacement of the sacrum in relation to the L5 vertebrae d. A subluxation of the superior facet b. Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebrae in relation to the sacrum A hand orthosis controls: a. Palmar arch and thumb position b. Radial deviation c. First dorsal interosseous d. Transverse arch and carpal tunnel a. Palmar arch and thumb position Think a resting hand splint Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in: a. Central nervous system injuries b. Lower motor neuron injuries c. Upper motor neuron injuries d. Both a and c b. Lower motor neuron injuries Upper motor neurone lesions present with hypertonia and spastic paralysis, whereas lower motor neurone lesions are usually associated with hypotonia and flaccid paralysis. A patient presents with excessive tibial torsion. How should this be incorporated into a conventional upright AFO? a. Provide a lateral T-strap b. Externally rotate the shoe on the stirrup c. Deflect the sidebars d. Externally rotate the joints c. Deflect the sidebars Tibial torsion can only be corrected with surgery, so you would want to accommodate the torsion while still allowing proper functionality of the orthosis. You deliver a device in the hospital to a patient who is not able to communicate. You should: a. Provide the nurse with thorough verbal instructions b. Provide the patient with thorough verbal instructions c. Provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions d. Leave written instructions at the patient's bedside c. Provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions You see a patient post triple ankle arthrodesis. What is the best device to provide? a. A negative heel shoe modification b. A rocker sole with SACH heel wedge c. A corrective foot orthosis d. A CROW boot b. A rocker sole with SACH heel wedge A triple arthrodesis is a procedure consisting of the surgical fusion of the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints in the foot. A corrective foot orthosis is improper because the ankle is fused. A negative heel rocker puts all the weight onto the calcaneus which would not be advantageous since the patient's hindfoot is fused. A CROW boot is for Charcot which the patient does not have. The rocker sole will help the patient progress their gait while providing a stable support for the fused ankle from the SACH heel. Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform? a. Posterior tibialis b. Peroneus longus c. Peroneus tertius d. Extensor digitorum longus a. Posterior tibialis The superficial, and larger division, inserts onto the plantar surface of the tarsal bones of the foot, mainly onto the tuberosity of navicular bone and the medial cuneiform bone. The space between an axon and a dendrite is called the: a. Myelin b. Synovium c. Schwann's space d. Synapse d. Synapse The gelatinous center of a spinal disc is the: a. Annulus fibrosis b. Conus medullaris c. Articular capsule d. Nucleus pulposus d. Nucleus pulposus A patient reports pain at the navicular and posterior to the medial malleolus. What is the most likely pathology? a. Charcot foot b. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Plantar fasciitis b. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction Which muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit? a. Lumbricals b. Palmar interossei c. Dorsal interossei d. Adductor pollicis c. Dorsal interossei Poliomyelitis is what type of pathology? a. Lower motor neuron b. Upper motor neuron c. Progressive d. Sensory a. Lower motor neuron A patient with a complete C6 spinal cord injury powers a wrist-driven flexor hinge tenodesis orthosis by using the: a. Flexor digitorum sublimis b. Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi radialis c. Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis d. Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint? a. Ischiofemoral ligament b. Inguinal ligament c. Obturator membrane d. Iliofemoral ligament d. Iliofemoral ligament Which of the following is least likely to increase the likelihood of an infant developing a positional deformation of the cranium? a. Infant is a twin or triplet b. Low amniotic fluid in utero c. Diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfecta d. Below 50% on weight chart at 4 months of age d. Below 50% on weight chart at 4 months of age The position of the thoracic facets most easily allows for which movements? a. Rotation and extension b. Rotation and lateral flexion c. Flexion and abduction d. Flexion and extension b. Rotation and lateral flexion Patient is in your office for a scoliosis TLSO adjustment. You note the orthosis is too small and her latest x-ray shows a Risser sign of 4. What action should you take? a. Contact the physician for a prescription for a new orthosis b. Discuss weaning out of the orthosis and refer patient to physician for end of treatment c. Discuss moving to a nocturnal style of scoliosis TLSO d. Adjust the orthosis by heating and relieving the tight areas b. Discuss weaning out of the orthosis and refer patient to physician for end of treatment Blount's disease is also known as: a. Tibia vara b. Fibular hemimelia c. Coxa valga d. Clubfoot a. Tibia vara Which of the following is not true of Sheurmann's kyphosis? a. It may be treated using a Milwaukee CTLSO b. It is a sagittal plane deformity c. An LSO to posteriorly tilt pelvis will improve this condition d. It is an idiopathic juvenile disorder c. An LSO to posteriorly tilt pelvis will improve this condition The most appropriate orthotic treatment for a patient with a T12 compression fracture is: a. Thoracolumbar corset b. CTO c. Bivalve TLSO with reduced lordosis d. Anterior control hyperextension orthosis d. Anterior control hyperextension orthosis The fracture occurs when the bone actually collapses and the front (anterior) part of the vertebral body forms a wedge shape. The brace used to treat a compression fracture of the spine is designed to keep you from bending forward. It holds the spine in hyperextension. This takes most of the pressure off the fractured vertebral body, and allows the vertebrae to heal. It also protects the vertebra and stops further collapse of the bone. What gait deviation would you primarily expect to see with a tibial nerve lesion? a. Dropfoot through swing phase b. Over pronation in weight bearing c. Plantarflexion contracture d. Uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase d. Uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase The tibial nerve innervates the gastrocnemius, soleus, and tibialis posterior. The gastrocnemius and soleus are plantar flexors and the tibialis posterior is an invertor. With a nerve lesion, the muscles are no longer firing. This means that the plantar flexors are unable to oppose the dorsiflexors which would affect the speed of tibial advancement. Which is not a part of the scapula? a. Glenoid cavity b. Coracoid process c. Coronoid process d. Acromion process c. Coronoid process A young child with a T12 myelomeningocele is seen in your office for a device that will help the patient ambulate in the home and classroom and allow hands free standing. What device do you evaluate him for? a. Bilateral locked knee KAFOs with Lofstrand crutches b. Parapodium c. Bilateral stance control KAFOs d. Ground reaction AFOs b. Parapodium Because the functional level is located at the thoracic level, the child is unable to stand without support. They have abdominal and paraspinal control with some pelvic control. This removes options c and d because c requires at least hip flexor function and d requires even more muscle strength than c. Option A is not a hands free option. The parapodium offers hands free standing. What compensatory motion would most likely be seen in an individual with quadriceps weakness? a. Steppage gait b. Forward trunk lean c. Trendelenburg gait d. Circumduction b. Forward trunk lean With weak quadriceps, the knee remains fully extended throughout stance. Because the knee is extended, the body compensates with a forward trunk lean to shift the line of gravity anterior to the knee. A patient with hyperkyphosis is placed in a Milwaukee CTLSO for treatment. Where should the corrective pressures be placed? a. Anterior throat ring, anterior thoracic pad b. Anterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad c. Posterior throat ring, anterior thoracic pad d. Posterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad b. Anterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad Gower's sign is best described by which of the following? a. With a semi-flexed knee and foot resting on a firm surface, move the proximal tibia anteriorly and posteriorly on the femur. A tibia that moves posteriorly is a positive sign. b. With patient side-lying and knee supported, abduct and extend the hip. A knee that does not adduct when released is a positive sign. c. Have the patient move from a seated position on the floor to standing. The patient using his or her arms to walk up the thighs is a positive sign. d. Have the patient supine on the bed with one leg pulled to the chest and the opposite leg extended off the table with knee flexed. A positive sign is the extended leg flexing or abducting at the hip. c. Have the patient move from a seated position on the floor to standing. The patient using his or her arms to walk up the thighs is a positive sign. Associated with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. A patient comes into the office exhibiting lasting redness on the navicular and medial malleolus after wearing her new AFO. What adjustment is most likely to correct this problem? a. Remake with a lateral Sabolich extension b. Move the ankle strap so that the chafe is medial and the strap is lateral c. Adjust the medial trimline posterior to the medial malleolus and inferior to the navicular d. Add a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali d. Add a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali What is the prime elbow flexor? a. Brachialis b. Coracobrachialis c. Biceps femoris d. Brachioradialis a. Brachialis Hydrocephalus often accompanies which of the following? a. Meningitis b. Positional plagiocephaly c. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome d. Spina bifida d. Spina bifida The lumbricals function to: a. Flex the MCP joints and the PIP joints b. Extend the MCP joints c. Flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints d. Abduct the phalanges c. Flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints The muscle length-tension relationship describes: a. The concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joint's position through its arc of motion b. The concept that a contracted muscle is inherently a strong muscle c. The concept that the farther a force is placed from a fulcrum point, the stronger the force on the fulcrum will be d. The concept that the strength of a muscle can be measured in direct relation to the cross sectional area of the muscle a. The concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joint's position through its arc of motion In general, as muscles shorten, they are able to generate greater amounts of tension. However, shortening a muscle beyond a certain point will not longer generate any increases in tension. The adductors of the scapula include all but the: a. Middle trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Latissimus dorsi d. Serratus anterior d. Serratus anterior Which of the following is not a prehension pattern? a. Hook b. Dorsal c. Cylindrical d. Lateral b. Dorsal The six types of prehension patterns are: cylindrical, lateral, tip, hook, palmar, and spherical. What term best pertains to the palm of the hand and the sole of the foot? a. Dorsum b. Caudal c. Volar d. Varum a. Volar Which of the following is not a biarticular muscle? a. Semitendinosis b. Biceps femoris c. Vastus medialus d. Rectus femoris c. Vastus medialus Biarticular muscles cross two joints. Which of the following actions are carried out by the sartorius? a. Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion b. Hip flexion; knee extension c. Hip abduction and external rotation; knee extension d. Hip abduction and internal rotation; knee flexion a. Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion Your patient is experiencing pressure at the proximal posterior of the AFO he wears to control mild genu recurvatum. What is the best choice to eliminate this pressure? a. Lower the proximal trimline 2 cm b. Add a 0.5 cm lift under the heel of the orthosis c. Heat and flare the proximal trimline d. Adjust the ankle joint to allow 10 degrees of plantar flexion c. Heat and flare the proximal trimline Which scenario is best to test to differential between a grade 3 and grade 4 psoas major strength? a. Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion. b. Patient lies prone with knee flexed; examiner resists hip extension. c. Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip extension. d. Patient lies side-lying with knee flexed; examiner resists hip flexion. a. Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion. The psoas major is a hip flexor. By having the patient side-lying, gravity is eliminated. If we are determining if the patient is grade 3 or 4, we would not want to eliminate gravity. When instructing a patient to ascend/descend stairs with unilateral weakness, which is appropriate? a. Ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the sound limb. b. Ascend leading with the affected limb; descend leading with the sound limb. c. Ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the affected limb d. Always use a step-to gait, leading with the sound limb on ascent and descent. c. Ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the affected limb You should lead with your stronger leg to walk up the stairs and your weaker leg to walk down. When ascending stairs, remember that a strong leg is needed to propel you upwards; the other leg just follows. When descending stairs, you need a good leg to bear your body weight as you lower your injured one. Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect? a. It is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve b. It functions as an internal rotator of the hip c. It inserts on the gluteal tuberosity of the femur d. Part of it originates on the ilium b. It functions as an internal rotator of the hip. The gluteus maximus is responsible for external rotation of the hip. A positive Trendelenburg sign is assigned when: a. There is weakness of the gluteus maximus b. The affected side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the sound side c. Patient lacks sufficient muscle strength to maintain hip adduction d. The sound side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the affected side d. The sound side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the affected side A patient comes into your office stating low back pain caused by hyperlordosis. What advice might you give your patient to reduce symptoms? a. Avoid sleeping with the knees flexed b. Avoid wearing shoes with a heel higher than 3/8" c. Avoid crunches or other core exercises d. Focus on posture and practicing decreasing posterior pelvis tilt b. Avoid wearing shoes with a heel higher than 3/8" Studies have found that wearing heels can lead to increased plantar flexion, greater knee flexion, and lumbar lordosis as you shift your center of gravity to accommodate. Which of the following is purely a sensory nerve? a. Obturator b. Tibial c. Femoral d. Saphenous d. Saphenous Maximum plantar flexion occurs at what phase of gait? a. Loading response b. Pre-swing c. Terminal stance d. Heel off b. Pre-swing A patient wearing a metal and leather KAFO with double adjustable ankle joints experiences excessive knee flexion during standing. To reduce this, the orthotist should: a. Deepen the proximal thigh band b. Deflect uprights to move knee joints more posterior c. Deepen the calf band d. Add a pin to the posterior channel of the ankle joint c. Deepen the calf band This confuses me but with hyperextension, we want to shallow the calf band so I'm just thinking of this as opposite. The primary hip flexor is the: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Iliopsoas c. Rectus femoris d. Quadriceps b. Iliopsoas Lateral stability of the pelvis in stance phase is accomplished through the action of which muscle? a. Iliopsoas b. Gluteus medius c. Gluteus minimus d. Internal obliques b. Gluteus medius You deliver a TLSO to a patient scheduled to discharge from the hospital in one week. The hospital states they cannot issue a purchase order because the device should be billed to Medicare. You should: a. Bill Medicare using the date of delivery as the date of service b. Bill Medicare using the date of discharge as the date of service c. Inform the hospital that you cannot legally bill Medicare in this situation d. Bill the skilled nursing facility to which the patient is scheduled to discharge c. Inform the hospital that you cannot bill Medicare in this situation Which is not considered a business associate under HIPAA regulations? a. Courier b. Attorney c. Accounting services d. Independent medical transcriptionist a. Courier Which is the prime extensor of the vertebral column? a. Iliocostalis b. Erector spinae c. Semispinalis d. Quadratus lumborum b. Erector spinae Which muscle is not innervated by the obturator nerve? a. Adductor brevis b. Adductor longus c. Sartorius d. Gracilis c. Sartorius The gracilis is a hip adductor. The sartorius is mainly flexes and externally rotates the hip and is innervated by the femoral nerve. Swan neck deformity refers to which position? a. Flexion of the PIP joint, hyperextension of the DIP joint b. Flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint c. Hyperextension of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint, flexion of MCP joint d. Flexion of the DIP joint, flexion of the PIP joint, hyperextension of the MCP joint b. Flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint Which of the following is not true of gait? a. The percent of gait spent in double limb support decreases with gait speed b. Initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical c. Stance phase accounts for 60% of the gait cycle d. When the right leg is in loading response, the left leg is in pre-swing b. Initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical Initial swing begins with heel off All of the following factors contribute to vaulting with an AK prosthesis EXCEPT: a. Prosthesis too long b. Excessive knee friction c. Inadequate suspension d. Weak hip extensors d. Weak hip extensors Weak hip extensors would causes a shorter step length ( more of a "step to" gait). The gluteus medius is most active during: a. Heel strike b. Mid-stance c. Push-off d. Double support b. Mid-stance In normal gait, the gluteus medius shows its maximum contractile force during mid-stance, in the single-leg stance phase. In the single-leg stance phase, the gluteus medius contracts efferently to restrict or decelerate the descent of the pelvis toward the swing phase side. Which of the following is a characteristic of the constant friction knee? a. Eliminates the need for alignment stability b. Aids in stabilization of the knee during stance phase c. Supports body weight when the knee is slightly flexed d. Reduces "heel rise" and "terminal impact" at normal cadence e. Permits the knee to swing at varying speeds depending on cadence e. Permits the knee to swing at varying speeds depending on the cadence. If the friction set high and the user is walking slow, the knee will swing slow. If the user is walking fast, the knee will swing fast. Friction stays the same, but speed can vary based on user force. An extension assist reduces "heel rise" and "terminal impact" at normal cadence. The toe of an AK prosthesis rotates externally at heel strike. Which of the following is the MAJOR cause of this problem? a. Knee bolt externally rotated b. Excessive toe out c. Keel too short d. Plantar flexion resistance too firm d. Plantar flexion resistance too firm Extension of residual limb is too vigorous at initial contact During normal locomotion, how many inches does the center of gravity shift from side to side? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 b. 2 The center of gravity of the adult male is located on the midline of the body at approximately the level of the: a. Acetabulum b. Coccyx c. Umbilicus d. Ischial tuberosity e. Second sacral vertebra e. Second sacral vertebra In a standing posture, it is typically about 10 cm lower than the navel, near the top of the hip bones. In the anatomical position, the center of gravity lies approximately anterior to the second sacral vertebra. To minimize lateral bending of the trunk subsequent to unilateral hip abductor weakness, it is best to use: a. A cane on the involved side b. A cane on the uninvolved side c. A cane on both sides b. A cane on the uninvolved side The surgical attachment of muscle to muscle is known as: a. Myoplasty b. Myodesis c. Arthroplasty d. Arthrodesis a. Myoplasty The body's center of gravity reaches its highest point at: a. Heel strike b. Foot flat c. Mid-stance d. Heel-off c. Mid-stance Pressure is determined by: a. Force divided by torque b. Torque divided by force c. Force divided by area d. Area divided by force c. Force divided by area During normal human locomotion between heel contact and foot flat, the floor reaction force tends to cause which moments at the hip and knee? a. Flexion; flexion b. Flexion; extension c. Extension; flexion d. Extension; extension a. Flexion; flexion 222-1233 IC LR MSt TSt PreS H A A P P A K A P A A P A P P A A A If the sciatic nerve is severed at the level of the lesser trochanter, muscle function will NOT be impaired at the: a. Hip joint b. Knee joint c. Ankle joint d. Subtalar joint a. Hip joint L4-S1 In the shoulder disarticulation amputee, which of the following muscle sites would be MOST suitable for control of a myoelectric elbow? a. Superior rhomboid and sternomastoid b. Superior rhomboid and subscapularis c. Pectoralis major and trapezius d. Pectoralis major and coracobrachialis c. Pectoralis major and trapezius In the scapulothoracic amputee, which of the following motions can be used to operate the prosthesis? a. Glenohumeral flexion b. Biscapular abduction c. Shoulder elevation d. Chest expansion d. Chest expansion Which of the following muscles does NOT rotate the humerus internally? a. Subscapularis b. Pectoralis major c. Infraspinatus d. Latissimus dorsi c. Infraspinatus The infraspinatus rotates the humerus EXTERNALLY. The terminal device on the shoulder disarticulation prosthesis is operated primarily by scapular: a. Abduction b. Adduction c. Elevation d. Depression A. Abduction A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from: Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? Loading Response Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior? Extensor Hallucis Longus Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth? Multiple Sclerosis A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening on the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this? Left posterior brachycephalic Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy? Nonstructural scoliosis What is the most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist? WHO with thumb post In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the: Teres Minor The axis of rotation of the hip joint is located: Anterior & Superior to the greater trochanter The gelatinous center of a spinal disc is the: Nucleus Pulposus Which muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit? Dorsal Interossei The position of the thoracic facets most easily allows for which movements? Rotation and Lateral Flexion Which of the following is NOT true of Sheurmann's kyphosis? An LSO to posteriorly tilt the pelvis will improve this condition What gait deviation would you primarily expect to see with a tibial nerve lesion? Uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase What compensatory motion would most likely be seen in an individual with quadriceps weakness? Forward trunk lean Hydrocephalus often accompanies which of the following? Spina Bifida The lumbricals function to: Flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints What is NOT true of the gluteus maximums It functions as an internal rotator of the hip Maximum plantarflexion occurs at what phase of gait? Pre Swing Which muscle is NOT innervated by the obturator nerve? Sartorius What is NOT true of gait? Initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical What is the principle to follow when fitting a Milwaukee TLSO? The loading vector for thoracic and lumbar pads should be anteromedial in almost all cases An orthosis for a patient post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction should primarily control: Anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur Which muscle does not act on the wrist: Brachioradialis You are testing a patient's L3-L5 Myotomes. Which motions do you test? Knee Extension, Dorsiflexion, & Great toe Extension A patient comes into your office for an orthosis to prevent glenohumeral subluxation. What positions should the shoulder be places in? Abduction and internal rotation What would a proximal lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve NOT affect? Brachioradialis What position is the hip typically in during heel strike? 30 degrees flexion The muscles that pass posterior to the lateral malleolus act to: Plantarflex and evert the foot What is the standard clearance for knee joints on a KAFO? 3mm Laterally, 6mm medially The measured ML of an anatomical joint is 8.3cm (3 1/4"). What should the inside measurement for your mechanical ankle joint me? 9.2cm (3 5/8") Which nerve divides into the common peroneal nerve and the tibial nerve? Sciatic Nerve What abnormal motion of the calf band will occur if the mechanical ankle joint of an AFO is located too proximal in relation to the anatomical ankle joint? Calf band migrates distally with plantar flexion and distally with dorsiflexion What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO? Spine of Scapula What muscle in the thigh is not bi-articular? Vastus medialis A patient presenting with hyperextension of the 4th and 5th metacarpal phalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints likely has a wrist level lesion of which nerve? Ulnar A patient with spina bifida comes into your office after utilizing bilateral AFOs for 6 weeks. After re-evaluating their muscle strength you will likely tell them what? Continue wearing the AFOs as muscle strength has changed little Which of the following muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter? Iliopsoas What is not considered a sesamoid bone? Lunate Carpal tunnel syndrome results in compression of which nerve? Median What percentage of the gait cycle is spent in double limb support? 20% The correct height of a mechanical joint is: Distal tip of the medial malleolus A patient with quadriplegia resulting form a lesion at C7 neurosegmental level is most likely to benefit from which orthosis? Static HO How many continuing education credits must a single discipline orthotist earn every 5 years in order to remain compliant with ABC? How many must be scientific Class I Credits? 75 & 50 How much length beyond the toes should be allowed when measuring in non-weight bearing for diabetic extra depth shoes? 1/2" Can a device that is delivered prior to admission to a hospital be billed to medicare? Yes but only in the medical necessity for the device is independent of the patient's admission to the hospital What is NOT true of the thoracic pad in a Milwaukee TLSO? It is placed over the rib that articulates with the apical vertebrae and one rib superior What is the optimal age for beginning cranial remolding treatment? 4-6 months of age Signs of upper and lower extremity flexion synergy pattern: UE: Shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist flexion LE: hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion Signs of upper and lower extremity extensor synergy pattern: UE: shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion LE: hip extension, adduction, internal rotation, ankle plantarflexion During heel strike, the hip is how flexed? 25 degrees Describe Legg-Calve-Perthes disease MalesFemales, average age onset 6 years old, psoatic limp due to psoas major weakness, lower extremity moves into external rotation, flexion and adduction, MRI will show collapse of subchondral bone at femoral neck A patient is seen in clinic and presents with L5, S1, spondylolisthesis. The patient has handed you a script with RX: LSO aligned appropriately. How would you align the patient in the sagittal plane: Decrease lumbar lordosis With regards to spondylolisthesis, what are the radiographic signs that contraindicate orthotic intervention and indicate a surgical candidate: Anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 50% Superior vertebrae angulations of 50 degrees relative to the inferior vertebrae A patient is seen in the hospital and presents with L1 burst fracture. Which orthosis would be most appropriate: Knight-Taylor TLSO BOB "overlapping style" LSO Jewett TLSO Polymer TLSO Polymer TLSO With a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus you would expect, weakness of elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm pronators. What other muscle group would you expect to be weak: Wrist extensors Thumb abductors Shoulder flexors Elbow extensors Thumb abductors A patient is seen in the hospital. The patient presents with a T11 anterior compression fracture. The patient is neurologically intact, and the fracture is stable. Which orthosis (2) would be most appropriate? CASH TLSO Williams TLSO Jewett TLSO Corset LSO CASH TLSO Jewett TLSO When taking an impression for a custom polymer LSO for a patient with L5-S1 spondylolisthesis, how would you position the patient if they were allowed to stand through the procedure? Patient should be asked to flex their hips and knees slightly What are some of the biomechanical principals behind an LSO corset? Kinesthetic Reminder Increased Intra-Abdominal Pressure Multiple 3-point-pressure systems A patient presents with a separated connective tissue in her symphysis pubis. What orthoses is recommended and what hormone can cause the elastic city of the symphysis pubis to increase during pregnancy? SI Belt Relaxin Hormone A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with a separated connective tissue in her symphysis pubis. What orthosis is recommended and what hormone can cause the elasticity of the symphysis pubis to increase during pregnancy, choose two answers: Custom LSO with bilateral hip spica's Relaxin hormone Elastin hormone SI belt SI Belt Relaxin Hormone You are working with a therapist on gait training for a patient that has a L1 complete spinal cord injury along with another patient that has an L4 spinal cord injury. What bracing would you expect most appropriate for these patients and ambulation tolerance respectively: -L1 spinal cord injury: Independent ambulation with knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO) household distance, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, community ambulator independent -L1 spinal cord injury:Independent with all manual wheelchair skills, non ambulator no bracing, L4 spinal cord injury: KAFO, independent with household distances -L1 spinal cord injury: no ambulation, independent with transfers, bed mobility, wheelchair mobility, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, independent with community mobility -L1 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, household mobility, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, independent with community mobility L1 spinal cord injury: Independent ambulation with knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO) household distance, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, community ambulator independent What pathology would indicate the use of a Williams Flexion LSO: Anterior compression fractures Burst fractures Sponylolisthesis Lumbar scoliosis Spondylolisthesis A patient with an upper motor neuron disorder has a posterior loss of balance with immediate sit to standing due to either tight muscles or weakness. What would be the most likely cause of this: -Spasticity of the gastrocnemius-soleus -Contraction of the hip flexors -Weakness of the hip abductors -Contracture of the hamstrings Spasticity of the Gastrocnemius-Soleus A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic. Upon radiographic reading you note that the thoracic curve apex is located at T6. Which orthosis is appropriate: -Boston system -Charleston Bending brace -Jewett TLSO -Milwaukee CTLSO Milwaukee CTLSO A patient is seen at the local hospital Ortho/Neuro floor. The patient presents with an unstable odontoid fracture. Which orthosis would you recommend: -Minerva. -Malibu. -CTO -HALO CTLSO HALO CTLSO A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with DX: lower lumbar stenosis and a RX: LSO align appropriately. Which option would you recommend: -LSO aligned in flexion -LSO aligned in extension -TLSO aligned in flexion -TLSO aligned in extension LSO Aligned in flexion When selecting posterior pin placement in a HALO CTLSO application, where is the proper starting position: -Above the ear and the largest circumference of the cranium -Slightly superior to ear, opposing the anterior pin directly, inferior to equator of the cranium -At the level of the ear and inferior to the equator of the cranium -1/4" inferior to the top of ear, with posterior pins opposing each other Slightly superior to ear, opposing the anterior pin directly, inferior to equator of the A patient you are working with has a medial nerve lesion, you would expect that they will have loss of all functions EXCEPT one of the following: -Abductor pollicis brevis -Flexor pollicis Brevis -Opponens pollicis -Flexor carpi ulnaris Flexor Carpi Ulnaris What are clinical "visible by the eye" signs of scoliosis Arm gap, shoulder asymmetry Pelvic obliquity Rib hump Prominent scapula T/F, When fabricating a Williams Flexion LSO for spondylolisthesis, the anterior corset panel should be fabricated out of an inelastic material False In the hospital you see a 6 year old girl with spina bifida. You are consulted due to the patient's club foot and a 30 deg scoliotic thoracic curvature. Please circle one choice that would be part of the normal treatment for a child with spina bifida: -Prevent contractures due to neurogenic deformities -With hydrocephalus, decompress and place shunt in place -Prevent pressure sores -Fit patient with an ankle foot orthosis and a TLSO -All of the above All of the above Scoliosis is sometimes sub-divided into different types. What are signs of congenital scoliosis: -Curvature correction with heel lift -Left lumbar curve, right thoracic curve -Wedged, bar, and hemi-vertebrae -None of the above Wedged, bar, and hemi-vertebrae Scoliosis is sometimes sub-divided into different types. What are signs of neuromuscular scoliosis: -Left lumbar curve and right thoracic curve -Right lumbar curve and left thoracic curve -Curvature correction with heel lift -Lumbar curves greater that 20 degrees Right lumbar curve and left thoracic curve When examining a scoliosis radiograph, the vertebral body is seen to rotate toward the _________ in relation to the curve and the spinous process is seen to rotate toward the__________ in relation to the curve: -Concavity, Convexity -Convexity, Concavity -Convexity, Convexity -Concavity, Concavity Convexity, concavity Which types of scoliotic curves would you expect to progress more given only the location of the curve (2): -Thoracic -Single lumbar -Thoracolumbar -Double Major Single lumbar, Thoracolumbar Parkinson's disease is a chronic, progressive disease of the CNS with degeneration of dopaminergic neurons. What are the four hallmark symptoms of PD: -Rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, and impaired postural reflexes -Rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, and ataxia -Rigidity, tremor, radiculopathy, and impaired postural reflexes -Rigidity, tremor, festinating gait, and Lhermitte's sign Rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, and impaired postural reflexes A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation. After cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that she has a 35 deg left lumbar curve with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time: -Observation only at this time -Refer her back to her physician for a surgical consult -Recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted -Immediate scoliosis orthotic management Immediate scoliosis orthotic management A 15 year old scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation. After cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that that she has a 20 deg left lumbar, 22 deg right thoracic curves with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time: -Observation only at this time and schedule a follow up appointment after her next radiograph series -Refer her back to her physician for a surgical consult -Recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted -Immediate Scoliosis orthotic management Observation only at this time and schedule a follow up appointment after her next radiograph series A patient is seen in clinic. DX: Sheurmann's Kyphosis apex= T9, RX: Orthosis. What type of orthosis would you recommend: -An off the shelf TLSO modified with thoracic extension. -Custom TLSO -Custom CTLSO -Jewett TLSO Custom TLSO When a HALO application is finished all pins for an adult should be torqued to____________ and between 24-48hours the pins should be______________: -6-8 inch pounds -6-8 newton meters -Re-torqued -Removed, disinfected, applied, and re-torqued 6-8 inch pounds Re-torqued Injury to the tibial nerve on the right leg, would cause which gait deviation: -Step to pattern on the unaffected side -Step to pattern on the affected side -Foot drop and shortened step length on the unaffected side -Absent push off during gait cycle, decreased step length on unaffected side Absent push off during gait cycle, decreased step length on unaffected side What are the characteristics of the congenital abnormality in infants called torticollis? Choose all that apply: -Contracture of the sternocleidomastoid -Ipsilateral head tilt -Contralateral head rotation -Often treated with a TOT orthosis "tubular orthosis for torticollis" which can be worn while the infant is sleeping -Contracture of the sternocleidomastoid -Ipsilateral head tilt -Contralateral head rotation Sarmiento style fracture orthoses utilize which biomechanical principles for fracture management? Choose all that apply: -Multiple 3-point pressure systems -Total contact -Long lever arms -Hydrostatic tissue loading -Multiple 3-point pressure systems -Total contact -Long lever arms -Hydrostatic tissue loading When fabricating a rancho style HO (hand orthosis) , what length would you terminate the thumb post at: -1st digit IP joint -2nd digit mid finger nail bed -1st digit MP joint -1st digit mid finger nail bed 1st digit mid finger nail bed A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with her right radial nerve intact and severed median and ulnar nerves. What orthosis would you recommend: -Rancho style HO -WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge) -Static WHFO. -WHO (in anatomical position) WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge) The stance phase of gait makes up what percent of the gait cycle during ordinary walking speeds: -40% -60% -50% -20% 60% Choose all the pathologies that indicate the need for medial longitudinal arch support in a functional foot orthotic: (all that apply) -Plantar fasciitis -Posterior tibialis tendon dysfunction -Knee osteoarthritis in the lateral compartment -Pes plano valgus -Plantar fasciitis -Posterior tibialis tendon dysfunction -Knee osteoarthritis in the lateral compartment -Pes plano valgus Choose all the pathologies that indicate the need for a first ray relief and lateral wedge in a functional foot orthotic: -Cavo varus foot -Peroneal tendon dysfunction -Chronic lateral ankle sprains -Jones fracture -Cavo varus foot -Peroneal tendon dysfunction -Chronic lateral ankle sprains -Jones fracture T/F, A patient with a cavo varus foot and peroneal tendonitis should utilize their functional foot orthotics (1st ray relief, extrinsic lateral wedge) with a pronator motion control type shoe: -True -False False What is the most appropriate foot orthotic for a type two diabetic: -Accommodative -Accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a polypropylene base -Accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a Medicare approved foam base layer -Functional/Accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a medicare approved foam base layer Functional/Accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a medicare approved foam base layer A patient is seen in clinic for a follow up appointment and is disappointed with the results of his custom foot orthotics. The patient is being treated by you for a Mortons Neuroma (between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals). The foot orthotic you provided has utilized "MLA support and Carlson modifications". What modification would be most effective to increase the effectiveness of the foot orthotics: -Increase MLA support -Change the top cover to a softer durometer -Add a metatarsal pad -Add a lateral extrinsic wedge Add a metatarsal pad Select all that are found in Scarpa's triangle (femoral triangle): -Femoral nerve -Femoral artery -Sartorius muscle -Inguinal lymph nodes -Femoral nerve -Femoral artery -Sartorius muscle -Inguinal lymph nodes A patient is seen in clinic, You are filling in for a sick practitioner whom delivered a KAFO 1 week earlier. The patient was provided the KAFO as he has 30 deg genu recurvatum and a 15 deg fixed plantarflexion contracture. The patient states he has a hard time getting over his foot at midstance and that while his knee extension is decreased he feels excessive pressure on the posterior aspect of his knee. What adjustments or additions can you make to remedy this problem: (2) -Dorsiflex the ankle joint -Add a 15 deg tapered heel wedge to the foot plate -Recommend rocker sole shoes -Add a contralateral heel lift Add a 15 deg tapered heel wedge to the foot plate Add a contralateral heel lift A patient is seen in clinic. The patient is utilizing foot orthotics with 3/8" heel lifts to decrease inflammation of her heel chord "achilles tendonitis". What lumbar pathologies could this aggravate: -Anterior compression fractures of the lumbar spine -L5-S1 spondylolisthesis -DJD of the lumbar facet joints -Lumbar Spondylolysis L5-S1 spondylolisthesis DJD of the lumbar facet joints Lumbar Spondylolysis What would you recommend for additions to an articulated AFO for drop foot and posterior lateral hyperextension thrust of the knee (mild tone is present): -Elevation of the 2nd-5th MTP joints and digits. -1/4" heel/lateral wedge. -PF stop. -Metatarsal pad. Elevation of the 2nd-5th MTP joints and digits. 1/4" heel/lateral wedge. PF stop. Metatarsal pad. What additions can you make to an AFO to decrease excessive pronation within the AFO: -Extrinsic medial wedge -Medial Sabolich tab or trimline -Sustentaculum tali "ST" pad -Extrinsic lateral wedge Extrinsic medial wedge Medial Sabolich tab or trimline Sustentaculum tali "ST" pad A patient has failed conservative treatment for plantar fasciitis including foot orthotics, physical therapy, shoe wear modifications. Choose all that are common surgical interventions: -Gastroc lengthening procedure -Plantar fascia release -Ankle fusion -Triple arthrodesis Gastroc lengthening procedure Plantar fascia release A patient is seen in clinic whom has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome. The patient has weak knee extensors, knee flexors, ankle plantarflexors, and ankle dorsiflexors. What muscle groups would you expect to regain strength first if the syndrome begins to remit: -Knee extensors -Ankle plantarfexors -Ankle dorsiflexors -Knee Flexors Knee Extensors Knee Flexors Having a patient perform a heel raise, screens what myotomal level: -L4 -L2 -S1 -L5 S1 You have provided a patient with an articulated AFO and PF stop. When the patient ambulates you notice that they have pronounced knee flexion during loading response. Choose the options that can cause this: -Firm extrinsic heel wedge -PF stop is too dorsiflexed -Shoe heel is too soft -PF stop is too plantarflexed Firm extrinsic heel wedge PF stop is too dorsiflexed T/F, When fabricating a KAFO the distal/posterior thigh band and the proximal/posterior calf band should be located equidistant from the knee axis: -True -False True A patellar tendon bearing AFO is indicated for which pathologies: -Charcot joint -Avascular necrosis of the talus -Osteoarthritis of the ankle joint -Calcaneal fracture Charcot joint Avascular necrosis of the talus Osteoarthritis of the ankle joint Calcaneal fracture When turning a conventional AFO into a dorsiflexion assist AFO, how would you set up the double action ankle joint: -Springs in the anterior channels -Pins in the anterior channels -Springs in the posterior channels -Pins in the posterior Channels Pins in the anterior channels Springs in the posterior channels A patient is seen in clinic with flaccid ankle plantarflexors and dorsiflexors. Choose appropriate double action ankle joint configurations: -springs in anterior and posterior channels -Pins in the posterior channels with springs in the anterior channels -Pins in the anterior and posterior channels -Springs in the posterior channels and pins in the anterior channels Pins in the anterior and posterior channels Springs in the posterior channels and pins in the anterior channels A patient with Duchennes Muscular Dystrophy is seen to ambulate with increased lumbar lordosis secondary to which muscular weakness: -Hip flexor -Hip extensor -Hip adductors -Hip abductors Hip extensor When designing a thermoplastic KAFO for a patient with severe genu recurvatum, what can you incorporate that will help control the knee hyper extension: (select all that apply) -Extending the dist/post thigh trimline more distally -Decreasing the depth of the thigh section -Extending the prox/post calf trimline proximally -Decreasing the depth of the calf section -Extending the dist/post thigh trimline more distally -Decreasing the depth of the thigh section -Extending the prox/post calf trimline proximally -Decreasing the depth of the calf section A patient wearing a KAFO is seen in clinic. The patient complains of anterior thigh pressure while sitting. What could be the cause: -Mechanical knee joint is too proximal in relation to the anatomical joint -Mechanical knee joint is too distal in relation to the anatomical joint -Mechanical knee joint is too posterior in relation to the anatomical joint -Mechanical knee joint is too anterior in relation to the anatomical joint -Mechanical knee joint is too distal in relation to the anatomical joint The erector spinae muscles are found in the intermediate layer of the muscles in the back. When they act bilaterally, they extend the vertebral column. When they act unilaterally what action do they perform: -Rotate the spine -Rotate and laterally bend to the side of active muscles -Laterally bend the vertebral column -Stabilize vertebrae during local movements of the vertebral column Laterally bend the vertebral column T/F, Guillain-Barre syndrome progresses in an ascending order: -True -False True A 240lbs female bears how much weight collectively through her right 2nd-5th MTP joints while standing evenly on both feet: -20lbs -40lbs -60lbs -120lbs 40lbs A child is seen in clinic. The child is playing on the floor and proceeds to use his hands to stand up by pushing off of his lower extremities until upright. What is the name of this maneuver and what diagnosis does this boy most likely have: (2) -Duchennes muscular dystrophy -Tinel sign -Gowers sign -Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Duchennes muscular dystrophy Gowers sign The lumbricals act to: -Flex the MP joints and abduct the thumb -Flex the MP joints and extend the IP joints -Abduct the phalanges -Extend the MP joints and flex the IP joints Flex the MP joints and extend the IP joints The nominate bone of the pelvic girdle is known as: -Sacrum -Ilium -Ischium -Symphysis pubis Sacrum The deltoid muscle acts to abduct the shoulder with what other muscle: -Supraspinatus -Infraspinatus -Subscapularis -Trapezius Supraspinatus You are seeing a patient in acute rehab with a physical therapist. This patient has had a CVA. Upon examination you see foot drop during gait, weak dorsiflexors grade 2, weak inversion and eversion grade 2, and increased tone in her plantar flexors. What would be an appropriate orthotic device: -A dorsiflexion assist -Off the shelf carbon fiber AFO -Spiral AFO -A solid ankle AFO A solid ankle AFO