75 Free NCLEX
Questions - c/o
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with Accurate Answers
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis Exacerbation. The
physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the
following outcomes after administration of this medication?
1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
4. A stabilization of mood and sleep correct answer 1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary
movements
Incorrect - While muscle spasticity and involuntary movements can be symptoms of MS, a corticosteroid
infusion is not meant to directly treat these symptoms.
2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
Incorrect - Special drugs like Interferon Beta, Natalizumab, or Glatiramir acetate are used as first-line
treatments to slow the progression of MS. While corticosteroids can be used in conjunction with these
drugs on a long-term basis, they would not be infused. They would be taken orally.
3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
Correct - A methylprednisolone infusion is the first line of treatment during an acute exacerbation and is
used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse.
4. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Incorrect - Some of the frequent side effects of a Methylprednisolone infusion are anxiety, insomnia,
and mood swings.
,A 30-year old Caucasian woman who works the night shift has been found to have early bone loss and
has a high risk for osteomalacia and bone degradation. She asks the nurse exactly why she should take
Vitamin D supplements. What is the nurse's best response?
1. "It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia"
2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
3. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for
bone formation."
4. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age." correct answer 1. "It's a
standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia"
Incorrect - While this is true, it doesn't answer the woman's question.
2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
Correct - This is the correct mechanism of action for Vitamin D
3. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for
bone formation."
Incorrect- This is not the correct mechanism of action for Vitamin D
4. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age."
Incorrect - Vitamin D supplements should be taken for patients who are homebound, institutionalized,
or by some other limitations, unable to meet daily requirements. This woman works the night shift,
which may limit her ability to absorb Vitamin D naturally.
A 45-year old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at
home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?
1. Slurred speech
,2. Sudden dizziness
3. Masklike facial expression
4. Stooped Posture correct answer 1. Slurred speech
Incorrect - Slurred speech is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
2. Sudden dizziness
Correct - Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of this drug that can lead to
an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole's drug class is a dopamine agonist, which mimic dopamine in the
brain (PD is characterized by a lack of dopamine).
3. Masklike facial expression
Incorrect - Masklike facial expression is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
4. Stooped Posture
Incorrect - Stooped Posture is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
A 65 year old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives
in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
1. Hypotension
2. Tachycardia
3. Back Pain
4. Difficulty Urinating correct answer 1. Hypotension
Correct - Hypotension can lead to dizziness and a risk for injury to the patient.
2. Tachycardia
Tachycardia can be a side effect of Flomax, but is not an immediate safety risk, nor is it a common side
effect.
3. Back Pain
, Back Pain can be a side effect of Floma, but is not a safety risk
4. Difficulty Urinating
Dysuria is a symptom of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, not a side effect of Flomax
A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse
anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?
1. alprazolam (Xanax)
2. Corticosteroid injection
3. gabapentin (Neurontin)
4. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco) correct answer 1. alprazolam (Xanax)
Incorrect - alprazolam is used to reduce anxiety
2. Corticosteroid injection
Incorrect - Corticosteroid injections are used to reduce inflammation in a localized area, often due to
joint breakdown. In MS patients it is used to treat acute exacerbations ("flare-ups"), but the symptoms
described do not constitute an acute exacerbation.
3. gabapentin (Neurontin)
Correct - Anticonvulsants like gabapentin are often the first line of treatment for nerve pain
4. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)
Incorrect - Opioids would not be the appropriate medication to treat nerve pain.
A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a
diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
1. Diarrhea and Vomiting
2. Dizziness and Drowsiness
Questions - c/o
BrilliantNurse.com
with Accurate Answers
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis Exacerbation. The
physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the
following outcomes after administration of this medication?
1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
4. A stabilization of mood and sleep correct answer 1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary
movements
Incorrect - While muscle spasticity and involuntary movements can be symptoms of MS, a corticosteroid
infusion is not meant to directly treat these symptoms.
2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
Incorrect - Special drugs like Interferon Beta, Natalizumab, or Glatiramir acetate are used as first-line
treatments to slow the progression of MS. While corticosteroids can be used in conjunction with these
drugs on a long-term basis, they would not be infused. They would be taken orally.
3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
Correct - A methylprednisolone infusion is the first line of treatment during an acute exacerbation and is
used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse.
4. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Incorrect - Some of the frequent side effects of a Methylprednisolone infusion are anxiety, insomnia,
and mood swings.
,A 30-year old Caucasian woman who works the night shift has been found to have early bone loss and
has a high risk for osteomalacia and bone degradation. She asks the nurse exactly why she should take
Vitamin D supplements. What is the nurse's best response?
1. "It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia"
2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
3. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for
bone formation."
4. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age." correct answer 1. "It's a
standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia"
Incorrect - While this is true, it doesn't answer the woman's question.
2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
Correct - This is the correct mechanism of action for Vitamin D
3. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for
bone formation."
Incorrect- This is not the correct mechanism of action for Vitamin D
4. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age."
Incorrect - Vitamin D supplements should be taken for patients who are homebound, institutionalized,
or by some other limitations, unable to meet daily requirements. This woman works the night shift,
which may limit her ability to absorb Vitamin D naturally.
A 45-year old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at
home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?
1. Slurred speech
,2. Sudden dizziness
3. Masklike facial expression
4. Stooped Posture correct answer 1. Slurred speech
Incorrect - Slurred speech is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
2. Sudden dizziness
Correct - Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of this drug that can lead to
an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole's drug class is a dopamine agonist, which mimic dopamine in the
brain (PD is characterized by a lack of dopamine).
3. Masklike facial expression
Incorrect - Masklike facial expression is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
4. Stooped Posture
Incorrect - Stooped Posture is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
A 65 year old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives
in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
1. Hypotension
2. Tachycardia
3. Back Pain
4. Difficulty Urinating correct answer 1. Hypotension
Correct - Hypotension can lead to dizziness and a risk for injury to the patient.
2. Tachycardia
Tachycardia can be a side effect of Flomax, but is not an immediate safety risk, nor is it a common side
effect.
3. Back Pain
, Back Pain can be a side effect of Floma, but is not a safety risk
4. Difficulty Urinating
Dysuria is a symptom of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, not a side effect of Flomax
A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse
anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?
1. alprazolam (Xanax)
2. Corticosteroid injection
3. gabapentin (Neurontin)
4. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco) correct answer 1. alprazolam (Xanax)
Incorrect - alprazolam is used to reduce anxiety
2. Corticosteroid injection
Incorrect - Corticosteroid injections are used to reduce inflammation in a localized area, often due to
joint breakdown. In MS patients it is used to treat acute exacerbations ("flare-ups"), but the symptoms
described do not constitute an acute exacerbation.
3. gabapentin (Neurontin)
Correct - Anticonvulsants like gabapentin are often the first line of treatment for nerve pain
4. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)
Incorrect - Opioids would not be the appropriate medication to treat nerve pain.
A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a
diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
1. Diarrhea and Vomiting
2. Dizziness and Drowsiness
