PNR 300 – SENECA COLLEGE EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED
A+ | LATEST EXAM
1. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics?
A. Hypertension
B. Constipation
C. Tachycardia
D. Insomnia
Answer: B – Constipation is a frequent side effect due to reduced gastrointestinal motility with
opioid use.
2. The antidote for acetaminophen overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: C – N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores and protects the liver from
acetaminophen toxicity.
3. A patient receiving digoxin should be monitored for:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypertension
Answer: B – Digoxin increases vagal tone, which can lead to bradycardia; serum levels and
heart rate should be monitored.
4. Which route of administration provides the fastest onset of drug action?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
Answer: C – Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream for
immediate effect.
5. A common side effect of ACE inhibitors is:
A. Dry cough
B. Diarrhea
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Tachypnea
Answer: A – ACE inhibitors can cause a persistent dry cough due to accumulation of bradykinin.
,6. Which vitamin is essential for clotting factor synthesis?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Answer: D – Vitamin K is necessary for synthesis of prothrombin and other clotting factors.
7. When teaching a patient about insulin injections, the nurse should advise:
A. Inject into the same site every time
B. Rotate injection sites
C. Always mix all insulin types in one syringe
D. Only inject intramuscularly
Answer: B – Rotating sites prevents lipodystrophy and ensures consistent absorption.
8. Which lab test is most useful for monitoring long-term warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count
D. CBC
Answer: B – PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin anticoagulation and adjust dosing safely.
9. A patient taking furosemide should be assessed for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B – Loop diuretics like furosemide increase urinary potassium excretion, risking
hypokalemia.
10. The primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers is:
A. Vasodilation
B. Inhibition of sympathetic stimulation
C. Increased heart rate
D. Bronchodilation
Answer: B – Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility by blocking beta-
adrenergic receptors.
11. Which drug is classified as an H2 receptor antagonist?
A. Omeprazole
B. Ranitidine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Sucralfate
Answer: B – Ranitidine blocks H2 receptors in the stomach, reducing acid secretion.
12. A patient prescribed albuterol should be instructed:
A. Take it daily at bedtime
,B. Use as needed for acute symptoms
C. Avoid taking before exercise
D. Only use orally
Answer: B – Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist used for acute bronchospasm relief.
13. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of corticosteroids?
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Weight gain
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B – Corticosteroids can cause fluid retention and weight gain due to increased appetite
and sodium retention.
14. A nurse should monitor a patient on aminoglycosides for:
A. Ototoxicity
B. Liver toxicity
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Hypertension
Answer: A – Aminoglycosides can damage the inner ear, leading to hearing loss or balance
problems.
15. The therapeutic effect of lithium is most closely monitored by:
A. Blood pressure
B. Serum sodium levels
C. Serum lithium levels
D. Heart rate
Answer: C – Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, so serum levels are monitored to prevent
toxicity.
16. Which class of drugs is first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Biguanides
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Answer: B – Metformin (a biguanide) is first-line therapy due to efficacy and safety profile.
17. The antidote for heparin overdose is:
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Atropine
D. Naloxone
Answer: A – Protamine sulfate binds heparin to neutralize its anticoagulant effect.
18. Which symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Fever
B. Visual disturbances (yellow-green halos)
, C. Cough
D. Rash
Answer: B – Visual changes, nausea, and arrhythmias are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
19. A patient receiving vancomycin should have which lab monitored closely?
A. Liver function tests
B. Serum creatinine
C. Blood glucose
D. Electrolytes only
Answer: B – Vancomycin is nephrotoxic; kidney function should be monitored.
20. Which of the following is true regarding NSAIDs?
A. They reduce platelet aggregation permanently
B. They increase gastric mucosal protection
C. They inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
D. They are safe for all patients with kidney disease
Answer: C – NSAIDs inhibit COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandins responsible for pain and
inflammation.
21. A patient taking statins should avoid:
A. Grapefruit juice
B. Dairy products
C. Leafy vegetables
D. Water
Answer: A – Grapefruit juice can increase statin levels, raising the risk of toxicity.
22. Which drug class is commonly used to treat hypertension by promoting sodium
excretion?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Diuretics
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Beta-blockers
Answer: B – Diuretics increase renal excretion of sodium and water, reducing blood pressure.
23. The peak effect of a short-acting insulin occurs:
A. 1-2 hours
B. 4-6 hours
C. 8-12 hours
D. 24 hours
Answer: A – Short-acting insulin peaks approximately 1-2 hours after administration.
24. Which lab value indicates liver damage?
A. BUN
B. AST/ALT
C. Creatinine
VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED
A+ | LATEST EXAM
1. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics?
A. Hypertension
B. Constipation
C. Tachycardia
D. Insomnia
Answer: B – Constipation is a frequent side effect due to reduced gastrointestinal motility with
opioid use.
2. The antidote for acetaminophen overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: C – N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores and protects the liver from
acetaminophen toxicity.
3. A patient receiving digoxin should be monitored for:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypertension
Answer: B – Digoxin increases vagal tone, which can lead to bradycardia; serum levels and
heart rate should be monitored.
4. Which route of administration provides the fastest onset of drug action?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
Answer: C – Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream for
immediate effect.
5. A common side effect of ACE inhibitors is:
A. Dry cough
B. Diarrhea
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Tachypnea
Answer: A – ACE inhibitors can cause a persistent dry cough due to accumulation of bradykinin.
,6. Which vitamin is essential for clotting factor synthesis?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Answer: D – Vitamin K is necessary for synthesis of prothrombin and other clotting factors.
7. When teaching a patient about insulin injections, the nurse should advise:
A. Inject into the same site every time
B. Rotate injection sites
C. Always mix all insulin types in one syringe
D. Only inject intramuscularly
Answer: B – Rotating sites prevents lipodystrophy and ensures consistent absorption.
8. Which lab test is most useful for monitoring long-term warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count
D. CBC
Answer: B – PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin anticoagulation and adjust dosing safely.
9. A patient taking furosemide should be assessed for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B – Loop diuretics like furosemide increase urinary potassium excretion, risking
hypokalemia.
10. The primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers is:
A. Vasodilation
B. Inhibition of sympathetic stimulation
C. Increased heart rate
D. Bronchodilation
Answer: B – Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility by blocking beta-
adrenergic receptors.
11. Which drug is classified as an H2 receptor antagonist?
A. Omeprazole
B. Ranitidine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Sucralfate
Answer: B – Ranitidine blocks H2 receptors in the stomach, reducing acid secretion.
12. A patient prescribed albuterol should be instructed:
A. Take it daily at bedtime
,B. Use as needed for acute symptoms
C. Avoid taking before exercise
D. Only use orally
Answer: B – Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist used for acute bronchospasm relief.
13. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of corticosteroids?
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Weight gain
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B – Corticosteroids can cause fluid retention and weight gain due to increased appetite
and sodium retention.
14. A nurse should monitor a patient on aminoglycosides for:
A. Ototoxicity
B. Liver toxicity
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Hypertension
Answer: A – Aminoglycosides can damage the inner ear, leading to hearing loss or balance
problems.
15. The therapeutic effect of lithium is most closely monitored by:
A. Blood pressure
B. Serum sodium levels
C. Serum lithium levels
D. Heart rate
Answer: C – Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, so serum levels are monitored to prevent
toxicity.
16. Which class of drugs is first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Biguanides
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Answer: B – Metformin (a biguanide) is first-line therapy due to efficacy and safety profile.
17. The antidote for heparin overdose is:
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Atropine
D. Naloxone
Answer: A – Protamine sulfate binds heparin to neutralize its anticoagulant effect.
18. Which symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Fever
B. Visual disturbances (yellow-green halos)
, C. Cough
D. Rash
Answer: B – Visual changes, nausea, and arrhythmias are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
19. A patient receiving vancomycin should have which lab monitored closely?
A. Liver function tests
B. Serum creatinine
C. Blood glucose
D. Electrolytes only
Answer: B – Vancomycin is nephrotoxic; kidney function should be monitored.
20. Which of the following is true regarding NSAIDs?
A. They reduce platelet aggregation permanently
B. They increase gastric mucosal protection
C. They inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
D. They are safe for all patients with kidney disease
Answer: C – NSAIDs inhibit COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandins responsible for pain and
inflammation.
21. A patient taking statins should avoid:
A. Grapefruit juice
B. Dairy products
C. Leafy vegetables
D. Water
Answer: A – Grapefruit juice can increase statin levels, raising the risk of toxicity.
22. Which drug class is commonly used to treat hypertension by promoting sodium
excretion?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Diuretics
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Beta-blockers
Answer: B – Diuretics increase renal excretion of sodium and water, reducing blood pressure.
23. The peak effect of a short-acting insulin occurs:
A. 1-2 hours
B. 4-6 hours
C. 8-12 hours
D. 24 hours
Answer: A – Short-acting insulin peaks approximately 1-2 hours after administration.
24. Which lab value indicates liver damage?
A. BUN
B. AST/ALT
C. Creatinine
