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MEDICAL PARAMEDIC FISDAP EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EXAM

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MEDICAL PARAMEDIC FISDAP EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EXAM

Instelling
MEDICAL PARAMEDIC FISDAP
Vak
MEDICAL PARAMEDIC FISDAP

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

MEDICAL PARAMEDIC FISDAP EXAM | QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST
EXAM



1. A 65-year-old male presents with chest pain radiating to his left arm. His ECG shows ST-
segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely
occluded?
A. Left anterior descending
B. Left circumflex
C. Right coronary artery
D. Posterior descending artery

Answer: C. Right coronary artery
Rationale: ST elevation in II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior MI, usually due to RCA
occlusion.

2. What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol in the treatment of asthma?
A. Beta-1 agonist
B. Beta-2 agonist
C. Alpha-1 agonist
D. Muscarinic antagonist

Answer: B. Beta-2 agonist
Rationale: Albuterol selectively stimulates beta-2 receptors, causing bronchodilation.

3. During CPR, what is the recommended compression rate for adults?
A. 60–80 per minute
B. 80–100 per minute
C. 100–120 per minute
D. 120–140 per minute

Answer: C. 100–120 per minute
Rationale: High-quality adult CPR requires compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute.

4. A patient with suspected hypoglycemia is unconscious. Which route is preferred for
glucose administration?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. IV or intraosseous

,Answer: D. IV or intraosseous
Rationale: Unconscious patients cannot safely take oral glucose; IV or IO access is preferred.

5. Which of the following is a contraindication for nitroglycerin administration?
A. Chest pain
B. Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
C. History of angina
D. Tachycardia

Answer: B. Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
Rationale: Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension and should be avoided if systolic BP is low.

6. A 30-year-old male was stung by a bee and is experiencing wheezing, urticaria, and
hypotension. What is the first-line treatment?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine IM
C. Albuterol nebulizer
D. Prednisone

Answer: B. Epinephrine IM
Rationale: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis; it addresses airway, breathing, and
circulation.

7. Which rhythm is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac arrest in adults?
A. Asystole
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Pulseless electrical activity
D. Sinus tachycardia

Answer: B. Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: VF is the most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac arrest and is shockable.

8. Which of the following medications is indicated for a patient in symptomatic bradycardia
with a pulse?
A. Atropine
B. Adenosine
C. Amiodarone
D. Epinephrine

Answer: A. Atropine
Rationale: Atropine blocks vagal stimulation to increase heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia.

9. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with an opioid overdose and
respiratory depression?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil

, C. Epinephrine
D. Activated charcoal

Answer: A. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses respiratory depression.

10. A patient presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain after a
long flight. You suspect a pulmonary embolism. What is the classic triad?
A. Dyspnea, hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain
B. Fever, cough, wheezing
C. Tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension
D. Hypoxia, hypertension, tachypnea

Answer: A. Dyspnea, hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain
Rationale: Classic PE triad includes sudden dyspnea, hemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.

11. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to cause peaked T waves on ECG?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypercalcemia

Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Elevated potassium affects cardiac conduction, causing peaked T waves.

12. Which of the following is a sign of increased intracranial pressure?
A. Bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respirations
B. Tachycardia, hypotension, shallow respirations
C. Hypotension, bradypnea, tachycardia
D. Tachypnea, hypotension, bradycardia

Answer: A. Bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respirations
Rationale: Cushing’s triad is a late sign of increased ICP.

13. The most appropriate fluid for initial resuscitation in hypovolemic shock is:
A. 0.9% Normal saline
B. Dextrose 5% in water
C. Lactated Ringer’s
D. Albumin

Answer: C. Lactated Ringer’s
Rationale: LR is isotonic and preferred for hypovolemic shock due to trauma or dehydration.

14. Which of the following is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A. N-acetylcysteine
B. Naloxone

, C. Vitamin K
D. Atropine

Answer: A. N-acetylcysteine
Rationale: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione to detoxify NAPQI in acetaminophen
toxicity.

15. What is the preferred method to assess airway patency in an unresponsive patient?
A. Auscultation
B. Head tilt-chin lift
C. Jaw thrust maneuver
D. Pulse oximetry

Answer: C. Jaw thrust maneuver
Rationale: In trauma, jaw thrust is preferred to maintain airway without cervical spine
movement.

16. A 45-year-old patient presents with sudden severe headache, photophobia, and neck
stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Tension headache
D. Sinus infection

Answer: B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rationale: Sudden “worst headache of life” with neck stiffness is classic for SAH.

17. Which class of medication is contraindicated in acute heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers (acute decompensation)
C. Loop diuretics
D. Aldosterone antagonists

Answer: B. Beta-blockers (acute decompensation)
Rationale: Beta-blockers may worsen acute decompensated heart failure initially.

18. Which of the following medications is first-line for adult status epilepticus?
A. Diazepam IV
B. Lorazepam IV
C. Phenytoin IV
D. Midazolam IM

Answer: B. Lorazepam IV
Rationale: Lorazepam is preferred due to longer duration of action and efficacy.

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