MDMP Professional Mastery Examination Test
With A+ Graded Answers.(2026/2027)
1. During Step 1: Receipt of Mission, what is the primary purpose of the Commander’s initial
time-management guidance?
A) To finalize the supply list.
B) To ensure the 1/3–2/3 rule is followed for subordinate planning.
C) To approve the enemy Course of Action.
D) To conduct a combined arms rehearsal.
Correct Answer: B
2. In Step 2: Mission Analysis, which staff officer is responsible for developing the initial
Information Collection (IC) plan?
A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S-4
D) S-6
Correct Answer: B
3. Which of the following is a mandatory element of the Mission Statement developed in Step
2?
A) The name of every platoon leader.
B) The five Ws: Who, what, when, where, and why.
C) The specific fuel consumption rate.
D) The enemy's breakfast schedule.
Correct Answer: B
4. CCIR (Commander’s Critical Information Requirements) is comprised of which two sub-
components?
A) PIR and EEFI
B) PIR and FFIR
C) FFIR and ASCOPE
D) MCOO and PIR
Correct Answer: B
5. In Step 3: Course of Action (COA) Development, "Feasibility" as a screening criterion asks:
A) Does the COA accomplish the mission?
B) Does the unit have the time, space, and resources to execute?
C) Is the COA different from COA 2?
D) Is the risk worth the gain?
Correct Answer: B
6. During COA Development, the staff must first conduct which of the following actions?
A) Write the OPORD.
B) Assess relative combat power.
C) Draw the phase lines.
D) Select a winner.
Correct Answer: B
, 7. In Step 4: COA Analysis (War-Gaming), which technique is most appropriate for a non-
contiguous, highly fluid area of operations?
A) Belt Technique
B) Box Technique
C) Avenue-in-Depth Technique
D) Sector Technique
Correct Answer: B
8. What is the correct sequence of the war-gaming cycle to ensure all contingencies are
explored?
A) Action, Counteraction, Reaction.
B) Action, Reaction, Counteraction.
C) Attack, Defend, Consolidate.
D) Move, Shoot, Communicate.
Correct Answer: B
9. During the war-game, who is responsible for playing the role of the "Enemy Commander"?
A) The XO
B) The S-2
C) The S-3
D) The Commander
Correct Answer: B
10. Which output of Step 4 helps the staff synchronize the operation across time, space, and
purpose?
A) The Mission Statement
B) The Synchronization Matrix
C) The Personnel Roster
D) The Supply Log
Correct Answer: B
11. In Step 5: COA Comparison, who is the final authority on the weighting of the comparison
criteria in the Decision Matrix?
A) The Chief of Staff
B) The Commander
C) The S-3
D) The S-2
Correct Answer: B
12. Following Step 6: COA Approval, what is the critical output issued to subordinates to initiate
their movement?
A) WARNO 1
B) WARNO 2
C) WARNO 3
D) The final OPORD
Correct Answer: C
13. In the 5-paragraph OPORD format (Step 7), which paragraph contains the "Commander's
Intent"?
A) Paragraph 1: Situation
With A+ Graded Answers.(2026/2027)
1. During Step 1: Receipt of Mission, what is the primary purpose of the Commander’s initial
time-management guidance?
A) To finalize the supply list.
B) To ensure the 1/3–2/3 rule is followed for subordinate planning.
C) To approve the enemy Course of Action.
D) To conduct a combined arms rehearsal.
Correct Answer: B
2. In Step 2: Mission Analysis, which staff officer is responsible for developing the initial
Information Collection (IC) plan?
A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S-4
D) S-6
Correct Answer: B
3. Which of the following is a mandatory element of the Mission Statement developed in Step
2?
A) The name of every platoon leader.
B) The five Ws: Who, what, when, where, and why.
C) The specific fuel consumption rate.
D) The enemy's breakfast schedule.
Correct Answer: B
4. CCIR (Commander’s Critical Information Requirements) is comprised of which two sub-
components?
A) PIR and EEFI
B) PIR and FFIR
C) FFIR and ASCOPE
D) MCOO and PIR
Correct Answer: B
5. In Step 3: Course of Action (COA) Development, "Feasibility" as a screening criterion asks:
A) Does the COA accomplish the mission?
B) Does the unit have the time, space, and resources to execute?
C) Is the COA different from COA 2?
D) Is the risk worth the gain?
Correct Answer: B
6. During COA Development, the staff must first conduct which of the following actions?
A) Write the OPORD.
B) Assess relative combat power.
C) Draw the phase lines.
D) Select a winner.
Correct Answer: B
, 7. In Step 4: COA Analysis (War-Gaming), which technique is most appropriate for a non-
contiguous, highly fluid area of operations?
A) Belt Technique
B) Box Technique
C) Avenue-in-Depth Technique
D) Sector Technique
Correct Answer: B
8. What is the correct sequence of the war-gaming cycle to ensure all contingencies are
explored?
A) Action, Counteraction, Reaction.
B) Action, Reaction, Counteraction.
C) Attack, Defend, Consolidate.
D) Move, Shoot, Communicate.
Correct Answer: B
9. During the war-game, who is responsible for playing the role of the "Enemy Commander"?
A) The XO
B) The S-2
C) The S-3
D) The Commander
Correct Answer: B
10. Which output of Step 4 helps the staff synchronize the operation across time, space, and
purpose?
A) The Mission Statement
B) The Synchronization Matrix
C) The Personnel Roster
D) The Supply Log
Correct Answer: B
11. In Step 5: COA Comparison, who is the final authority on the weighting of the comparison
criteria in the Decision Matrix?
A) The Chief of Staff
B) The Commander
C) The S-3
D) The S-2
Correct Answer: B
12. Following Step 6: COA Approval, what is the critical output issued to subordinates to initiate
their movement?
A) WARNO 1
B) WARNO 2
C) WARNO 3
D) The final OPORD
Correct Answer: C
13. In the 5-paragraph OPORD format (Step 7), which paragraph contains the "Commander's
Intent"?
A) Paragraph 1: Situation
