PARAMEDIC TRAUMA FISDAP EXAM 2026 |
CERTIFIED QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS
| PASS GUARANTEED
PARAMEDIC TRAUMA FISDAP EXAM 2026
CERTIFIED QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS |
1. A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive after a motor vehicle collision. Which
of the following is the FIRST priority in trauma management?
A. Control external bleeding
B. Establish IV access
C. C. Ensure a patent airway
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment
E. Immobilize the cervical spine
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Ensure a patent airway
RATIONALE: Airway management is always the first priority in any trauma patient.
Without a patent airway, oxygenation and ventilation are impossible, leading to rapid
deterioration and death. All other interventions follow after the airway is secured.
2. Which mechanism of injury is MOST likely to cause aortic rupture?
A. Penetrating abdominal trauma
B. Fall from standing height
C. Low-speed rear-end collision
D. D. High-speed deceleration injury
E. Blunt force to the chest wall
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: D — High-speed deceleration injury
RATIONALE: The aorta is tethered at the ligamentum arteriosum. In high-speed
deceleration, the heart and proximal aorta continue moving forward while the
,descending aorta remains fixed, creating a shearing force that causes aortic rupture at
the isthmus.
3. A patient involved in a rollover MVC presents with a GCS of 13. Which triage
category does this patient fall under?
A. Black (expectant)
B. Green (minor)
C. C. Yellow (delayed)
D. Red (immediate)
E. Blue (observation)
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Yellow (delayed)
RATIONALE: A GCS of 13 indicates mild altered mental status. This patient does not
meet the criteria for immediate (red) triage, which typically requires GCS ≤ 13 with other
signs of physiological compromise. A GCS of 13 alone places the patient in the delayed
(yellow) category pending further assessment.
4. When assessing a trauma patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which
component carries the HIGHEST maximum score?
A. Eye opening
B. Verbal response
C. Motor response
D. D. Motor response (6 points)
E. Eye opening and verbal response equally
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: D — Motor response (6 points)
RATIONALE: The GCS is scored as: Eye opening (max 4), Verbal response (max 5),
and Motor response (max 6), totaling a maximum of 15. Motor response has the highest
weight and is the most clinically significant component of the scale.
,5. Which of the following BEST describes the kinetic energy formula relevant to
trauma?
A. KE = Mass × Velocity
B. KE = ½ × Mass × Velocity
C. C. KE = ½ × Mass × Velocity²
D. KE = Mass² × Velocity
E. KE = Mass × Acceleration²
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — KE = ½ × Mass × Velocity²
RATIONALE: Kinetic energy is calculated as KE = ½mv². Because velocity is squared,
even small increases in speed cause exponentially greater energy transfer to the body
during trauma. This is why high-speed collisions are far more lethal than low-speed
ones.
6. A 28-year-old restrained driver is involved in a frontal impact collision. Which
injury pattern should be MOST anticipated?
A. Lumbar spine fracture and aortic rupture
B. B. Sternal fracture, rib fractures, and head injury
C. Pelvic fracture and lower extremity injuries
D. Abdominal evisceration and diaphragmatic rupture
E. Bilateral femur fractures only
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: B — Sternal fracture, rib fractures, and head injury
RATIONALE: In a frontal impact, the restrained driver decelerates rapidly. The
seatbelt restrains the pelvis and chest, but the head continues forward. This pattern
commonly produces sternal and rib fractures from the seatbelt/steering wheel and head
injury from impacting the windshield or airbag.
7. Which of the following is an example of a PRIMARY blast injury?
A. Burns from the explosion fireball
B. Penetrating trauma from shrapnel
, C. Blunt trauma from being thrown
D. D. Pulmonary barotrauma from pressure wave
E. Crush injury from structural collapse
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: D — Pulmonary barotrauma from pressure wave
RATIONALE: Primary blast injuries result from the overpressure wave (barotrauma).
Air-filled organs such as the lungs, ears, and GI tract are most susceptible. Secondary
blast injuries are from shrapnel, tertiary from being thrown, and quaternary from burns
and crush injuries.
8. During a rapid trauma assessment, which finding would MOST indicate the
need for immediate transport?
A. Laceration to the forearm requiring sutures
B. Isolated closed femur fracture
C. C. Tracheal deviation with absent breath sounds
D. GCS of 14
E. Tenderness over the clavicle
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Tracheal deviation with absent breath sounds
RATIONALE: Tracheal deviation with absent breath sounds on one side indicates a
tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. This requires immediate needle
decompression and rapid transport. Delayed intervention leads to cardiovascular
collapse.
9. An unrestrained passenger strikes the dashboard in a head-on collision. Which
injury is MOST likely?
A. Lumbar spine fracture
B. Splenic laceration
C. Cervical spine injury
D. D. Bilateral femur fractures and hip dislocations
E. Aortic transection
CERTIFIED QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS
| PASS GUARANTEED
PARAMEDIC TRAUMA FISDAP EXAM 2026
CERTIFIED QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS |
1. A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive after a motor vehicle collision. Which
of the following is the FIRST priority in trauma management?
A. Control external bleeding
B. Establish IV access
C. C. Ensure a patent airway
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment
E. Immobilize the cervical spine
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Ensure a patent airway
RATIONALE: Airway management is always the first priority in any trauma patient.
Without a patent airway, oxygenation and ventilation are impossible, leading to rapid
deterioration and death. All other interventions follow after the airway is secured.
2. Which mechanism of injury is MOST likely to cause aortic rupture?
A. Penetrating abdominal trauma
B. Fall from standing height
C. Low-speed rear-end collision
D. D. High-speed deceleration injury
E. Blunt force to the chest wall
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: D — High-speed deceleration injury
RATIONALE: The aorta is tethered at the ligamentum arteriosum. In high-speed
deceleration, the heart and proximal aorta continue moving forward while the
,descending aorta remains fixed, creating a shearing force that causes aortic rupture at
the isthmus.
3. A patient involved in a rollover MVC presents with a GCS of 13. Which triage
category does this patient fall under?
A. Black (expectant)
B. Green (minor)
C. C. Yellow (delayed)
D. Red (immediate)
E. Blue (observation)
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Yellow (delayed)
RATIONALE: A GCS of 13 indicates mild altered mental status. This patient does not
meet the criteria for immediate (red) triage, which typically requires GCS ≤ 13 with other
signs of physiological compromise. A GCS of 13 alone places the patient in the delayed
(yellow) category pending further assessment.
4. When assessing a trauma patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which
component carries the HIGHEST maximum score?
A. Eye opening
B. Verbal response
C. Motor response
D. D. Motor response (6 points)
E. Eye opening and verbal response equally
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: D — Motor response (6 points)
RATIONALE: The GCS is scored as: Eye opening (max 4), Verbal response (max 5),
and Motor response (max 6), totaling a maximum of 15. Motor response has the highest
weight and is the most clinically significant component of the scale.
,5. Which of the following BEST describes the kinetic energy formula relevant to
trauma?
A. KE = Mass × Velocity
B. KE = ½ × Mass × Velocity
C. C. KE = ½ × Mass × Velocity²
D. KE = Mass² × Velocity
E. KE = Mass × Acceleration²
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — KE = ½ × Mass × Velocity²
RATIONALE: Kinetic energy is calculated as KE = ½mv². Because velocity is squared,
even small increases in speed cause exponentially greater energy transfer to the body
during trauma. This is why high-speed collisions are far more lethal than low-speed
ones.
6. A 28-year-old restrained driver is involved in a frontal impact collision. Which
injury pattern should be MOST anticipated?
A. Lumbar spine fracture and aortic rupture
B. B. Sternal fracture, rib fractures, and head injury
C. Pelvic fracture and lower extremity injuries
D. Abdominal evisceration and diaphragmatic rupture
E. Bilateral femur fractures only
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: B — Sternal fracture, rib fractures, and head injury
RATIONALE: In a frontal impact, the restrained driver decelerates rapidly. The
seatbelt restrains the pelvis and chest, but the head continues forward. This pattern
commonly produces sternal and rib fractures from the seatbelt/steering wheel and head
injury from impacting the windshield or airbag.
7. Which of the following is an example of a PRIMARY blast injury?
A. Burns from the explosion fireball
B. Penetrating trauma from shrapnel
, C. Blunt trauma from being thrown
D. D. Pulmonary barotrauma from pressure wave
E. Crush injury from structural collapse
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: D — Pulmonary barotrauma from pressure wave
RATIONALE: Primary blast injuries result from the overpressure wave (barotrauma).
Air-filled organs such as the lungs, ears, and GI tract are most susceptible. Secondary
blast injuries are from shrapnel, tertiary from being thrown, and quaternary from burns
and crush injuries.
8. During a rapid trauma assessment, which finding would MOST indicate the
need for immediate transport?
A. Laceration to the forearm requiring sutures
B. Isolated closed femur fracture
C. C. Tracheal deviation with absent breath sounds
D. GCS of 14
E. Tenderness over the clavicle
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Tracheal deviation with absent breath sounds
RATIONALE: Tracheal deviation with absent breath sounds on one side indicates a
tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. This requires immediate needle
decompression and rapid transport. Delayed intervention leads to cardiovascular
collapse.
9. An unrestrained passenger strikes the dashboard in a head-on collision. Which
injury is MOST likely?
A. Lumbar spine fracture
B. Splenic laceration
C. Cervical spine injury
D. D. Bilateral femur fractures and hip dislocations
E. Aortic transection
