CEA EXAM 2026 TEST BANK WITH 500 EXAM PREP QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS/ CEA FNP TEST 2026 TEST BANK (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
Question 1
A patient exhibits a productive cough and a low-grade fever. A PA chest X-ray shows an area of
consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart, approximately two rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral view shows this lesion is absent from the "window" posterior to
the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this focal consolidation?
A) Left upper lobe apex
B) Right middle lobe
C) Left upper lobe lingula
D) Left lower lobe
E) Right lower lobe
Correct Answer: C) Left upper lobe lingula
Rationale: This describes the "silhouette sign." Consolidation in the lingula (a segment of
the left upper lobe) sits anatomically adjacent to the left heart border. When two objects of
the same radiographic density (the heart and the consolidated lung) are in contact, the
border between them is lost on the X-ray. Since the lateral view shows the area is not
posterior to the heart, the left lower lobe is ruled out.
Question 2
The inability of the myocardium to fully relax and expand during the filling phase of the cardiac
cycle is the trademark of which diagnosis?
A) Systolic dysfunction
B) Diastolic dysfunction
C) High-output heart failure
D) Mitral valve prolapse
E) Right-sided heart failure
Correct Answer: B) Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: Diastolic dysfunction occurs when the left ventricle becomes stiff or thickened
(hypertrophic), preventing it from relaxing properly during diastole. This leads to impaired
filling and increased pressure in the heart, even if the "squeeze" (ejection fraction) remains
normal.
Question 3
An otherwise healthy African American adult male is diagnosed with hypertension. Despite salt
restriction, a DASH diet, and increased exercise, his blood pressure remains 155/95. According
to JNC8 guidelines, which is the BEST initial medication to prescribe?
A) ACE Inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril)
B) Beta-blocker (e.g., Atenolol)
C) Calcium channel blocker (e.g., Amlodipine)
D) ARB (e.g., Losartan)
E) Loop diuretic (e.g., Furosemide)
, Page 2
Correct Answer: C) Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: JNC8 guidelines specify that for the general African American population
(including those with diabetes), initial antihypertensive treatment should include a
thiazide-type diuretic or a calcium channel blocker (CCB), as these have been shown to be
more effective in this demographic compared to ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
Question 4
A patient is diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging
modality is considered the standard of care for serial surveillance and precise measurement of the
luminal dimensions?
A) Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)
B) CT angiography (CTA) of the chest
C) PA and Lateral chest X-ray
D) CT PE Protocol
E) Cardiac MRI without contrast
Correct Answer: B) CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CTA is the gold standard for serial surveillance of aortic aneurysms because it
allows for high-resolution, multi-axis reconstruction to measure the diameter accurately.
CT PE protocol is timed for the pulmonary arteries rather than the aorta, and X-rays
cannot provide the three-dimensional detail needed to guide surgical decisions.
Question 5
Which of the following medications is categorized as a pure alpha-1 agonist and does NOT cause
beta-1 adrenergic stimulation?
A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dopamine
D) Phenylephrine
E) Isoproterenol
Correct Answer: D) Phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist. It causes potent
vasoconstriction without stimulating beta receptors. This means it increases blood pressure
without directly increasing the heart rate or myocardial contractility (beta-1 effects).
Question 6
A 50-year-old woman with hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, jugular
venous distention (JVD), and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Acute bronchitis
C) Congestive heart failure (CHF)
D) Community-acquired pneumonia
, Page 3
E) Stable angina
Correct Answer: C) Congestive heart failure
Rationale: The combination of JVD (indicating right-sided backup) and bilateral crackles
with orthopnea (indicating left-sided backup and pulmonary edema) is the classic
presentation of biventricular congestive heart failure.
Question 7
A patient with HFrEF (EF 40%) suffers an LAD myocardial infarction and receives a drug-
eluting stent. At discharge, the EF has dropped to 30%. Which intervention is a priority to
prevent sudden cardiac death while waiting for a follow-up echo in 90 days?
A) Order a 48-hour Holter monitor
B) Prescribe a Lifevest (wearable cardioverter defibrillator)
C) Refer for immediate AICD placement
D) Initiate high-dose aspirin only
E) Prescribe Warfarin for rhythm control
Correct Answer: B) Prescribe a Lifevest (wearable cardioverter defibrillator)
Rationale: Guidelines generally require a 40-day (post-MI) to 90-day (post-
revascularization) waiting period before a permanent AICD can be implanted. If the EF is
<35%, a Lifevest is indicated during this "waiting period" to protect the patient from
lethal arrhythmias.
Question 8
Which of the following demographic groups represents the statistically lowest risk for the
development of coronary artery disease in the United States?
A) African Americans
B) Native Hawaiians
C) American Indians
D) Caucasians
E) Hispanics
Correct Answer: D) Caucasians
Rationale: While cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death for most groups,
statistics show that African Americans, Native Americans, and Pacific Islanders have
significantly higher rates of hypertension, obesity, and diabetes, which elevates their
relative risk compared to Caucasians.
Question 9
A 65-year-old female smoker with controlled hypertension has a mother who died of an MI at
age 40. Her LDL is 200 mg/dL. Which medication class is the most appropriate for managing her
cardiovascular risk?
A) Bile acid sequestrant
B) Statin
C) Fibrate
, Page 4
D) Nicotinic acid
E) Cholesterol absorption inhibitor
Correct Answer: B) Statin
Rationale: This patient has multiple high-risk factors: she is an active smoker, has a
premature family history of CAD (first-degree female relative <65), and an LDL >190.
High-intensity statin therapy is the primary recommendation for both secondary and high-
risk primary prevention.
Question 10
Which of the following clinical findings is NOT an end-organ sequela directly caused by
uncontrolled hypertension?
A) Arteriovenous (AV) nicking
B) Proteinuria
C) Hemorrhagic stroke
D) Peripheral neuropathy
E) Left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D) Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is primarily a complication of diabetes mellitus or
vitamin deficiencies. While HTN and neuropathy often coexist, HTN directly causes
vascular damage (stroke, retinopathy/AV nicking, nephropathy/proteinuria) and cardiac
remodeling.
Question 11
Preventive cardiac care focuses on modifiable risk factors. Which of the following is considered
a non-modifiable risk factor?
A) Sedentary lifestyle
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Excessive sodium intake
E) Medication non-compliance
Correct Answer: B) Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Non-modifiable factors are those the patient cannot change, such as age,
biological sex, and genetics. Lifestyle choices and medical adherence are the primary
targets for clinical intervention.
Question 12
A 33-year-old obese woman presents with hirsutism and irregular menses. Labs show an LH to
FSH ratio of >2:1 and elevated testosterone. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological
treatment for cycle regulation and endometrial protection?
A) Metformin
B) Spironolactone
C) Oral contraceptives
ANSWERS/ CEA FNP TEST 2026 TEST BANK (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
Question 1
A patient exhibits a productive cough and a low-grade fever. A PA chest X-ray shows an area of
consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart, approximately two rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral view shows this lesion is absent from the "window" posterior to
the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this focal consolidation?
A) Left upper lobe apex
B) Right middle lobe
C) Left upper lobe lingula
D) Left lower lobe
E) Right lower lobe
Correct Answer: C) Left upper lobe lingula
Rationale: This describes the "silhouette sign." Consolidation in the lingula (a segment of
the left upper lobe) sits anatomically adjacent to the left heart border. When two objects of
the same radiographic density (the heart and the consolidated lung) are in contact, the
border between them is lost on the X-ray. Since the lateral view shows the area is not
posterior to the heart, the left lower lobe is ruled out.
Question 2
The inability of the myocardium to fully relax and expand during the filling phase of the cardiac
cycle is the trademark of which diagnosis?
A) Systolic dysfunction
B) Diastolic dysfunction
C) High-output heart failure
D) Mitral valve prolapse
E) Right-sided heart failure
Correct Answer: B) Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: Diastolic dysfunction occurs when the left ventricle becomes stiff or thickened
(hypertrophic), preventing it from relaxing properly during diastole. This leads to impaired
filling and increased pressure in the heart, even if the "squeeze" (ejection fraction) remains
normal.
Question 3
An otherwise healthy African American adult male is diagnosed with hypertension. Despite salt
restriction, a DASH diet, and increased exercise, his blood pressure remains 155/95. According
to JNC8 guidelines, which is the BEST initial medication to prescribe?
A) ACE Inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril)
B) Beta-blocker (e.g., Atenolol)
C) Calcium channel blocker (e.g., Amlodipine)
D) ARB (e.g., Losartan)
E) Loop diuretic (e.g., Furosemide)
, Page 2
Correct Answer: C) Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: JNC8 guidelines specify that for the general African American population
(including those with diabetes), initial antihypertensive treatment should include a
thiazide-type diuretic or a calcium channel blocker (CCB), as these have been shown to be
more effective in this demographic compared to ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
Question 4
A patient is diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging
modality is considered the standard of care for serial surveillance and precise measurement of the
luminal dimensions?
A) Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)
B) CT angiography (CTA) of the chest
C) PA and Lateral chest X-ray
D) CT PE Protocol
E) Cardiac MRI without contrast
Correct Answer: B) CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CTA is the gold standard for serial surveillance of aortic aneurysms because it
allows for high-resolution, multi-axis reconstruction to measure the diameter accurately.
CT PE protocol is timed for the pulmonary arteries rather than the aorta, and X-rays
cannot provide the three-dimensional detail needed to guide surgical decisions.
Question 5
Which of the following medications is categorized as a pure alpha-1 agonist and does NOT cause
beta-1 adrenergic stimulation?
A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dopamine
D) Phenylephrine
E) Isoproterenol
Correct Answer: D) Phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist. It causes potent
vasoconstriction without stimulating beta receptors. This means it increases blood pressure
without directly increasing the heart rate or myocardial contractility (beta-1 effects).
Question 6
A 50-year-old woman with hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, jugular
venous distention (JVD), and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Acute bronchitis
C) Congestive heart failure (CHF)
D) Community-acquired pneumonia
, Page 3
E) Stable angina
Correct Answer: C) Congestive heart failure
Rationale: The combination of JVD (indicating right-sided backup) and bilateral crackles
with orthopnea (indicating left-sided backup and pulmonary edema) is the classic
presentation of biventricular congestive heart failure.
Question 7
A patient with HFrEF (EF 40%) suffers an LAD myocardial infarction and receives a drug-
eluting stent. At discharge, the EF has dropped to 30%. Which intervention is a priority to
prevent sudden cardiac death while waiting for a follow-up echo in 90 days?
A) Order a 48-hour Holter monitor
B) Prescribe a Lifevest (wearable cardioverter defibrillator)
C) Refer for immediate AICD placement
D) Initiate high-dose aspirin only
E) Prescribe Warfarin for rhythm control
Correct Answer: B) Prescribe a Lifevest (wearable cardioverter defibrillator)
Rationale: Guidelines generally require a 40-day (post-MI) to 90-day (post-
revascularization) waiting period before a permanent AICD can be implanted. If the EF is
<35%, a Lifevest is indicated during this "waiting period" to protect the patient from
lethal arrhythmias.
Question 8
Which of the following demographic groups represents the statistically lowest risk for the
development of coronary artery disease in the United States?
A) African Americans
B) Native Hawaiians
C) American Indians
D) Caucasians
E) Hispanics
Correct Answer: D) Caucasians
Rationale: While cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death for most groups,
statistics show that African Americans, Native Americans, and Pacific Islanders have
significantly higher rates of hypertension, obesity, and diabetes, which elevates their
relative risk compared to Caucasians.
Question 9
A 65-year-old female smoker with controlled hypertension has a mother who died of an MI at
age 40. Her LDL is 200 mg/dL. Which medication class is the most appropriate for managing her
cardiovascular risk?
A) Bile acid sequestrant
B) Statin
C) Fibrate
, Page 4
D) Nicotinic acid
E) Cholesterol absorption inhibitor
Correct Answer: B) Statin
Rationale: This patient has multiple high-risk factors: she is an active smoker, has a
premature family history of CAD (first-degree female relative <65), and an LDL >190.
High-intensity statin therapy is the primary recommendation for both secondary and high-
risk primary prevention.
Question 10
Which of the following clinical findings is NOT an end-organ sequela directly caused by
uncontrolled hypertension?
A) Arteriovenous (AV) nicking
B) Proteinuria
C) Hemorrhagic stroke
D) Peripheral neuropathy
E) Left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D) Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is primarily a complication of diabetes mellitus or
vitamin deficiencies. While HTN and neuropathy often coexist, HTN directly causes
vascular damage (stroke, retinopathy/AV nicking, nephropathy/proteinuria) and cardiac
remodeling.
Question 11
Preventive cardiac care focuses on modifiable risk factors. Which of the following is considered
a non-modifiable risk factor?
A) Sedentary lifestyle
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Excessive sodium intake
E) Medication non-compliance
Correct Answer: B) Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Non-modifiable factors are those the patient cannot change, such as age,
biological sex, and genetics. Lifestyle choices and medical adherence are the primary
targets for clinical intervention.
Question 12
A 33-year-old obese woman presents with hirsutism and irregular menses. Labs show an LH to
FSH ratio of >2:1 and elevated testosterone. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological
treatment for cycle regulation and endometrial protection?
A) Metformin
B) Spironolactone
C) Oral contraceptives
