1/NCLEX RN Pharmacology Test Bank 1
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1. When a 12-year-old child is prescribed methylphenidate, which is most important for the nurse
to monitor?
a. The child's temperature
b. The child's respirations
c. The child's intake and output
d. The child's height and weight d. The child's height and weight
2. Several children are admitted for diagnosis with possible attention deficit/hyperactivity
disorder. Which is most important for the nurse to observe?
a. A girl who is lethargic
b. A girl who lacks impulsivity
c. A boy with smooth coordination
d. A boy with an inability to complete tasks d. A boy with an inability to complete tasks
3. A client is taking benzphetamine. The nurse teaches the client which information about this
drug?
a. That it may cause drowsiness
b. That it may lead to hypotension
c. That it is a respiratory stimulant
d. That it is safe during pregnancy
4. The nurse monitoring a client for methylphenidate withdrawal should observe the client for
which condition?
a. Tremors
b. Insomnia
d. Tachycardia 3= b. That it may lead to hypotension
4= c. Weakness
5. The nurse teaches a client about which common side effect of analeptics?
a. Bradycardia
b. Constipation
c. Nervousness
d. Urinary retention c. Nervousness
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,6. The nurse who is teaching the client to self-administer medications explains to the client that
which drug treats narcolepsy?
a. modafinil
b. atomoxetine
c. lisdexamfetamine
d. methylphenidate a. modafinil
7. A newborn client is in respiratory distress. The nurse anticipates preparation for which
medication to be given?
a. modafinil
b. armodafinil
c. theophylline
d. amphetamine c. theophylline
Chapter 21
1. It is important for the nurse teaching the client regarding secobarbital (Seconal) to include
which information about secobarbital?
a. It is a short-acting drug that may cause one to awaken early in the morning.
b. It is an intermediate-acting drug that frequently causes REM rebound.
c. It is an intermediate-acting drug that frequently causes a hangover effect.
d. It is a long-acting drug that is frequently associated with dependence. a. It is a short-acting
drug that may cause one to awaken early in the morning.
2. A client taking lorazepam (Ativan) asks the nurse how this drug works. The nurse should
respond by stating that it is a benzodiazepine that acts by which mechanism?
a. Depressing the central nervous system (CNS), leading to a loss of consciousness
b. Depressing the CNS, including the motor and sensory activities
c. Increasing the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) to
GABA receptors
d. Creating an epidural block by placement of the local anesthetic in the outer covering of the
spinal cord c. Increasing the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric
acid (GABA) to GABA receptors
3. A client is taking zolpidem (Ambien) for insomnia. The nurse prepares a care plan that
includes monitoring of the client for side effects/adverse reactions of this drug. Which is a side
effect of zolpidem?
a. Insomnia
b. Headache
c. Laryngospasm
d. Blood dyscrasias b. Headache
4. A client received spinal anesthesia. Which is most important for the nurse to monitor?
a. Loss of consciousness
b. Hangover effects and dependence
c. Hypotension and headaches
d. Excitement or delirium c. Hypotension and headaches
5. A nurse is teaching a client about zolpidem. Which is important for the nurse to include in the
teaching of this drug?
a. Maximum dose is 20 mg/d
b. May lead to psychological dependence
c. For older adults, dose is 15 mg at bedtime
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,d. Should only be used for 21 days or less b. May lead to psychological dependence
6. A client is taking triazolam (Halcion). Which instructions about this drug are important for the
nurse to include?
a. It may be used as a barbiturate for only 4 weeks.
b. Use as a nonbenzodiazepine to reduce anxiety.
c. This drug does not lead to vivid dreams or nightmares.
d. Avoid alcohol and smoking to prevent rebound insomnia. d. Avoid alcohol and
smoking to prevent rebound insomnia.
7. A client is to receive conscious sedation for a minor surgical procedure. Which drug
administration should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
a. Propofol (Diprivan) to sustain natural sleep
b. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) to provide local anesthesia
c. Midazolam (Versed) to promote sedation and following of commands
d. Ketamine (Ketalar) for rapid inductionand prolonged duration of action a. Propofol (Diprivan)
to sustain natural sleep
c. Midazolam (Versed) to promote sedation and following of commands
Chapter 22
1. The nurse witnesses a client's seizure involving generalized contraction of the body followed
by jerkiness of arms and legs. The nurse reports that this is which type of seizure?
a. Myoclonic
b. Petit mal
c. Tonic clonic
d. Psychomotor c. Tonic clonic
2. Phenytoin (Dilantin) has been prescribed for a client with seizures. The nurse should include
which appropriate nursing intervention in the plan of care?
a. Reporting an abnormal phenytoin level of 18 mcg/mL
b. Monitoring CBC levels for early detection of blood dyscrasias
c. Encouraging the client to brush teeth vigorously to prevent plaque buildup
d. Teaching the client to stop the drug immediately when passing pinkish-red or reddish-brown
urine b. Monitoring CBC levels for early detection of blood dyscrasias
3. When administering phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse realizes more teaching is needed if the
client makes which statement?
a. "I must shake the oral suspension very well before pouring in the dose cup."
b. "I cannot drink alcoholic beverages when taking phenytoin."
c. "I should take phenytoin 1 hour before meals."
d. "I will need to get periodic dental checkups." c. "I should take phenytoin 1 hour before
meals."
4. A client is taking clonazepam (Klonopin) for absence (petit mal) seizures. Which value(s)
should the nurse report as outside the therapeutic range for clonazepam? (Select all that apply.)
a. 5 mcg/mL
b. 15 mcg/mL
c. 60 ng/mL
d. 120 ng/mL a. 5 mcg/mL
b. 15 mcg/mL
d. 120 ng/mL
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, 5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should
the nurse most likely prepare to administer to this client? (Select all that apply.)
a. diazepam (Valium)
b. midazolam (Versed)
c. gabapentin (Neurontin)
d. levetiracetam (Keppra) a. diazepam (Valium)
b. midazolam (Versed)
6. The nurse should monitor the client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for which adverse effect?
a. Psychosis
b. Nosebleeds
c. Hypertension
d. Gum erosion b. Nosebleeds
7. A client is taking valproic acid (Depakote). The nurse should monitor the client for a which
therapeutic serum range?
a. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
b. 15 to 40 mcg/mL
c. 20 to 80 ng/mL
d. 40 to 100 mcg/mL d. 40 to 100 mcg/mL
Chapter 23
1. A client with parkinsonism asks the nurse to explain what causes this condition. The most
accurate response by the nurse is that parkinsonism is caused by the degeneration of which?
a. Cholinergic neurons
b. Dopaminergic neurons
c. Acetylcholine neurotransmitters
d. Monamine oxidase-B neurotransmitters b. Dopaminergic neurons
2. A client is receiving carbidopa-levodopa for parkinsonism. What should the nurse know about
this drug?
a. Carbidopa-levodopa may lead to hypertension.
b. Carbidopa-levodopa may lead to excessive saliva.
c. Dopaminergic and anticholinergic therapy may lead to drowsiness and sedation.
d. Dopaminergics and anticholinergics are contraindicated in clients with glaucoma. d.
Dopaminergics and anticholinergics are contraindicated in clients with glaucoma.
3. A family member of a client with Alzheimer's disease asks the nurse what causes this disorder.
What does the nurse explain is the cause of Alzheimer's disease?
a. An excess of acetylcholine
b. Neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons
c. Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons
d. Neuritic plaques that form inside neurons in the cerebellum b. Neurofibrillary tangles
inside neurons
4. A client is taking rivastigmine (Exelon). The nurse should teach the client and family which
information about rivastigmine?
a. That hepatotoxicity may occur
b. That the initial dose is 6 mg t.i.d
c. That GI distress is a common side effect
d. That weight gain may be a side effect c. That GI distress is a common side effect
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