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VATI Fundamentals Focused Review | 220 Q&A with Rationales | Latest Edition | A++

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This VATI Fundamentals Focused Review provides 220 exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales, specifically updated for the nursing curriculum. Designed for NCLEX-RN® preparation, VATI remediation, and nursing fundamentals exams, this high-yield resource covers all core content areas with clinical mnemonics and priority nursing actions. Organized by NCLEX® Client Need categories: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Q1-35) Body mechanics, RACE fire protocol, delegation (RN vs LPN), restraints (remove q2h), C. diff hand hygiene (soap & water ONLY), telephone orders (read-back), fall assessment, fire extinguisher classes (Class C for electrical), blood transfusion (two identifiers), seizure precautions (suction), sterile technique, standard precautions, wound irrigation (normal saline), consent competency, incident reports, pressure injury risk (Braden Scale), enema positioning (Left Sims'), sterile field contamination, catheter insertion (inner to outer), NG tube assessment, condom catheter (leave tip space), airborne precautions (N95), pressure injury repositioning q2h, wet sterile field (restart), sharps disposal, restraint alternatives, tracheostomy suctioning (hyperoxygenate), droplet precautions (mask within 3 feet), IM ventrogluteal needle length (1-1.5 inch), advance directives. Health Promotion & Maintenance (Q36-70) Pregnancy weight gain (normal BMI 25-35 lb), MMR vaccine (12 months), 9-month milestones (sits unsupported), breast self-exam (1 week after menses), 4-month milestones (rolls front to back), skin cancer prevention (avoid sun 10am-4pm), 2-year language (2-3 word phrases), colon cancer screening (age 45), safe sleep (back to sleep, firm mattress), 15-month red flags (no words), HPV vaccine (males & females ages 9-26), osteoporosis (calcium + vitamin D), infant weight (doubles at 6 months), testicular self-exam (monthly), postpartum depression (2 weeks), teething (chilled ring), 3-year fine motor (draws circle), mammography (routine at 50), 12-month pincer grasp, folic acid (prevents spina bifida), 5-year gross motor (hops on one foot), SPF 30 for children, Erikson school-age (industry vs inferiority), lead poisoning (remove paint source), Tdap in pregnancy (27-36 weeks), helmet fit (V under ears), 7-month gross motor (sits with support), PSA screening, 2-month vaccines (DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, RV), adolescence Erikson (identity vs role confusion), shingles vaccine (age 50+), SIDS prevention (pacifier use). Psychosocial Integrity (Q71-105) Therapeutic communication (open-ended), substance diversion reporting, Kübler-Ross stages (anger = "Why me?"), anorexia nervosa (monitor after meals), dementia agitation (redirect), abuse signs (patterned burns), suicidal plan (immediate intervention), validating feelings, self-harm (remove means), alcohol withdrawal (seizure emergency), PTSD (flashbacks), command hallucinations (protect others), GAD non-pharmacologic (avoid caffeine/alcohol), bargaining stage, panic attack (stay, simple directions), prior suicide attempt (highest risk), OCD (gradually limit rituals), mania (high-calorie finger foods), somatic symptom disorder (validate feeling), antisocial PD (consistent limits), hallucination vs delusion, bulimia (hypokalemia), sexual assault (preserve evidence, client control), conversion disorder (passive ROM), lithium toxicity (fine tremor early), opioid withdrawal (flu-like symptoms), acute stress disorder (3 days to 1 month), SSRI side effects (nausea first week), clozapine (WBC 3000 = agranulocytosis), CBT explanation, dependent PD (difficulty deciding), hopelessness (explore), CIWA-Ar assessment, factitious disorder (sick role), denial stage. Basic Care & Comfort (Q106-140) NG tube placement (X-ray gold standard), unconscious oral care (side-lying), intake calculation (ice chips = half volume), colonoscopy prep (clear liquids, no red/purple), cane use (strong side, moves with weak leg), perineal care (front to back), low-sodium diet (avoid canned soup), melena (black/tarry stool), postural drainage (lower lobes = Trendelenburg), BMI calculation (kg/m²), diabetic foot care (cut nails straight across), colostomy stoma (pink/moist, slight bleeding ok), wound infection (purulent + odor), clear liquid diet (broth allowed), stroke positioning (on strong side), tracheostomy care (sterile, no cut gauze), catheter obstruction (no output + palpable bladder), dementia hygiene (allow participation), malnutrition (low albumin), low-fiber diet (avoid popcorn), post-hip replacement (no crossing legs), tinkling bowel sounds (early obstruction), mucositis care (saline/baking soda rinse), post-amputation (prone daily to prevent contracture), phlebitis (red, warm, cord), mechanical soft diet (mashed potatoes), hearing aid (turn off before inserting), oliguria (400 mL/day), infiltration (cool, pale, edema), colostomy odor (eggs cause odor). Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies (Q141-170) IM deltoid (1 inch, 23-25 gauge), heparin SC (90°, no aspiration, no massage), digoxin (hold for HR 60), furosemide (check potassium first), enoxaparin (abdomen, keep air bubble), blood transfusion reaction (STOP first), insulin lispro (give with meal), mixing insulin (clear to cloudy), vancomycin red man syndrome, PPD (intradermal forearm), IV potassium (pump, dilute, ≤10 mEq/hr), morphine (monitor RR first), intradermal allergy test (wheal/flare = positive), Z-track (lateral pull, no massage), metoprolol (hold for HR 60), infant IM (vastus lateralis), warfarin (INR 2-3), liquid medications (dilute if allowed), acetaminophen child max (75 mg/kg/day), eye drops (inner canthus pressure), enteric-coated (swallow whole), MDI with spacer (shake, exhale, inhale slowly, activate, hold), fentanyl patch (rotate site, no heat, q72h), NG feeding high residual (hold feeding), subcutaneous insulin (90° for average adult), controlled substance (witness waste), phenytoin IV (normal saline only), buccal tablet (between cheek and gum), drip rate calculation. Reduction of Risk Potential (Q171-200) Post-cardiac cath (expanding hematoma = emergency), chest tube (continuous bubbling = air leak), tracheostomy obstruction (can't pass catheter), CRBSI (fever + chills without source), post-thyroidectomy (stridor = emergency), increased ICP (widening pulse pressure), ileostomy obstruction (no output + distention), Buck's traction (free rope, hanging weights), phantom limb pain (sensation in missing limb), compartment syndrome (pain with passive stretch), pacemaker (hiccups = lead issue), surgical site infection (purulent drainage), TENS unit (turn off before removing electrodes), stoma necrosis (dark purple = emergency), NG suction (hypokalemia), DVT (unilateral calf pain), laryngectomy (dislodged tube = emergency), pleural effusion (dullness on percussion), wound VAC (leaking seal), pacemaker failure to capture (spike without QRS), AAA rupture (back pain + hypotension), suprapubic catheter (initial hematuria normal), JP drain (compress bulb after emptying), AV fistula (thrill = patent), Sengstaken-Blakemore (tube displacement = airway emergency), cochlear implant (facial twitching), chest tube tidaling (normal function), prolapsed stoma (notify provider), external fixator (loose pin = emergency), VP shunt failure (vomiting + decreased LOC). Physiological Adaptation (Q201-220) DKA (Kussmaul respirations), hypothyroidism (cold intolerance), pancreatitis (elevated amylase/lipase), right heart failure (JVD), pulmonary embolism (sudden dyspnea + chest pain), ascites (daily weights, low sodium), Addison's crisis (hypotension + hyponatremia), bowel obstruction perforation (fever + rebound tenderness), hypocalcemia (Trousseau's sign), hyperkalemia (peaked T waves), cholinergic crisis (SLUDGE + miosis), autonomic dysreflexia (hypertension + pounding headache), asthma (silent chest = emergency), subdural hematoma (lucid interval then decline), Kernig's sign (leg resistance with knee extension), phenytoin therapeutic (seizure-free without toxicity), hypovolemic shock (decreased urine output early), post-MI PVCs (risk of VF), ARDS (refractory hypoxemia), peritonitis (board-like abdomen).

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1|Page


VATI FUNDAMENTALS FOCUSED REVIEW
LATEST SOLUTION 2026–2027 EDITION 220
QUESTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS | DETAILED
RATIONALES | GRADED A+** HIGH YIELD
CONTENT



## SECTION 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT (Q1–
35)


**Q1.** A nurse is preparing to transfer a client from bed to stretcher.
Which action by the nurse demonstrates correct body mechanics?
A) Twist the torso while pulling the client
B) Keep feet together and lift with the back
C) Hold the client close to the nurse’s body
D) Position the stretcher lower than the bed


**Correct Answer: C**
**Rationale:** Holding the load close to the center of gravity reduces
strain on lower back. Twisting (A) increases injury risk. Feet should be
shoulder-width apart (B). Stretcher should be at the same height or
slightly lower than the bed (D) to allow rolling, not lifting.
**Key Takeaway:** Use broad base of support, keep load close, avoid
twisting.

,2|Page




---


**Q2.** A nurse observes smoke coming from an electrical outlet in a
client’s room. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Unplug all devices from the outlet
B) Activate the fire alarm
C) Use a fire extinguisher
D) Move the client out of the room


**Correct Answer: D**
**Rationale:** RACE protocol: **R**escue (move client), **A**larm,
**C**ontain, **E**xtinguish. Client safety is always first. After moving
client, activate alarm (B), then attempt to extinguish if safe.
**Key Takeaway:** RACE – Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish.


---


**Q3.** Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to a licensed
practical nurse (LPN)?
A) Initial admission assessment
B) Insertion of a Foley catheter
C) Creation of the nursing care plan

,3|Page


D) Evaluation of client outcomes


**Correct Answer: B**
**Rationale:** LPNs can perform stable, predictable procedures
(catheter insertion, wound care, meds). RN must perform initial
assessment (A), care plan (C), and evaluation (D).
**Key Takeaway:** LPN = stable, standard procedures. RN =
assessment, planning, evaluation.


---


**Q4.** A client is placed in wrist restraints after pulling out an IV line.
How often must the nurse remove the restraints for range-of-motion
exercises?
A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every 1 hour
C) Every 2 hours
D) Every 4 hours


**Correct Answer: C**
**Rationale:** Restraints require removal every 2 hours for ROM,
repositioning, and toileting. Check neurovascular status and skin
integrity. Document attempts at less restrictive measures.

, 4|Page


**Key Takeaway:** Restraints: remove q2h, document alternatives
tried.


---


**Q5.** A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions for
*Clostridioides difficile*. Which hand hygiene method is correct after
removing gloves?
A) Alcohol-based hand rub
B) Soap and water only
C) Either soap/water or alcohol rub
D) Chlorhexidine wipes


**Correct Answer: B**
**Rationale:** C. diff spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand rubs.
Mechanical washing with soap and water is required. Chlorhexidine (D)
is not sporicidal.
**Key Takeaway:** C. diff – soap and water ONLY. Alcohol
ineffective.


---


**Q6.** A nurse receives a telephone order from a provider for
morphine 4 mg IV push. Which action is most important?

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