NURS5433/ NURS 5433 Final Exam V1– Family II (FNP 2) 2026/ 2027 Edition | UTA Latest Update | Verified Questions & Verified Answers

NURS5433/ NURS 5433 Final Exam V1– Family II (FNP 2) 2026/ 2027 Edition | UTA Latest Update | Verified Questions & Verified Answers Q: Diagnosis for Pre Diabetes Answer Fasting Blood Glucose (FBG) Range 100-125 mg/dL Q: Diagnosis for Pre Diabetes Answer HbA1c (Range) 5.7% to 6.4% Q: Diagnosis for Pre Diabetes Answer 2 hour OGTT (Range) 140-199 mg/dL (after 75g load) Q: Diabetes diagnosis What is the level of the Random Blood Glucose for someone diagnosed with diabetics? A. Greater than or equal to 100 mg/dL B. Greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL C. Greater than or equal to 140 mg/dL D. Greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL Answer D. Greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL Q: Diabetes diagnosis What is the level of the Fasting Blood Glucose for someone diagnosed with diabetics? A. Greater than or equal to 100 mg/dL B. Greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL C. Greater than or equal to 140 mg/dL D. Greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL Answer B. Greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL Q: Diabetes diagnosis What is the level of the A1c for someone diagnosed with diabetics? A. Greater than or equal to 5.7 % B. Greater than or equal to 6.0 % C. Greater than or equal to 6.5 % D. Greater than or equal to 8.0 % Answer C. Greater than or equal to 6.5 % Q: Which of the following patients is a good candidate for Metformin for Type 2 Diabetes? A. 70 year old woman on dialysis B. 45 year old man struggling with binge drinking C. A pregnant women with gestational diabetes D. 75 year old overweight man who smokes cigarettes Answer D. 75 year old overweight man who smokes cigarettes Q: Perry is considering taking Glimepiride for his diabetes management. Which of the following is important to know prior to taking the medication? SATA A. Can cause weight loss B. Can cause weight gain C. Can cause hypoglycemia D. Okay for patients with kidney failure to use E. Contraindicated in patients with a Sulfa allergy Answer B. Can cause weight gain C. Can cause hypoglycemia E. Contraindicated in patients with a Sulfa allergy Q: Which of the following diabetic patients is a good candidate for the medication Empagliflozin? A. A 40 year old man with a GFR of 45 B. A 50 year old woman who struggles with UTIs C. A 30 year old woman on birth control who gets frequent yeast infections D. A 28 year old women with gestational diabetes Answer A. A 40 year old man with a GFR of 45 Renal benefits Q: When diagnosing Metabolic Syndrome how many of the 5 criteria are required? Answer Diagnostic Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome Q: Waist Circumference (men) ___ inches Waist Circumference (women) ___ inches Answer 40 men 35 women Q: Diagnostic Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome Triglycerides ___ mg/dL Answer 150 Q: Diagnostic Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome HDL Cholesterol ___ mg/dL (men) ___ mg/dL (women) Answer 40 mg/dL (men) 50 mg/dL (women) Q: Diagnostic Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome Blood Pressure Greater than or equal to ______ mmHg Answer 130/85 Q: Diagnostic Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome Fasting Blood Glucose ___ mg/dL Fasting Blood Glucose Answer 100 mg/dL Q: Carpal Tunnel is compression of which nerve? Answer median nerve Q: Which of the following test and signs can be used to diagnose Carpal Tunnel? SATA A. Talar Test B. Tinel Sign C. External rotation test D. Phalen's Test E. Manuel Compression F. Hand Elevation Test Answer B. Tinel Sign D. Phalen's Test E. Manuel Compression F. Hand Elevation Test Q: Nerve conduction study can also confirm median nerve compression, True or False? Answer True The Finkelstein Test is associate with which of the following musculoskeletal issues? A. Carpal Tunnel B. Epicondylitis C. ACL injury D. De Quervains Tenosynovitis Answer D. De Quervains Tenosynovitis What are the three special test done to test for an ACL Injury? Lachman Test Pivot Shift Test Answer Anterior Drawer Test What is mechanism of injury in an ACL tear? A. Hyperextension while squatting B. Hyperinflation while running C. Twisting and hyperflexion D. Twisting and hypertension Answer D. Twisting and hypertension Patient is taking Alendronate to treat her osteoporosis. Which of the following patient education should be given to avoid side effects? A. Lay down for 30-60 mins after taking the med B. Sit up for 30-60 mins after taking the med C. It's important to take a "drug holiday" from the medication and you can do so whenever you feel it's necessary D. Take this medication with an NSAID to avoid pain Answer B. Sit up for 30-60 mins after taking the med McMurray Test, Thessaly's Test, and Apleys Test are all done to assess for injury of the? Answer Meniscus A patient with a torn Meniscus will still be able to squat, True or False? False Answer Squat test: inability to squat may indicate meniscus tear Which of the following medication are considered First Line for Osteoarthritis? A. NSAIDs B. Proton pump inhibitors C. Acetaminophen D. Opioids E. Intra-articular steroids Answer A. NSAIDs Why may PPIs need to be added to a patient regimen for osteoarthritis? Answer The used of NSAIDS as first line treatment may cause GI complications like ulcers, PPI can help protect the lining of the GI What is the GOLD STANDARD diagnostic for Osteoporosis? Answer DEXA scan Why would we do a DEXA scan to diagnose Osteoporosis? A. To measure the patient body fat percentage B. To measure the patients muscle mass C. To measure the patients bone mineral density Answer C. To measure the patients bone mineral density Which of the following patients should be screened for osteoporosis? SATA A. 50 year old female B. 60 year old smoker C. 70 year old male D. 66 year old female E. 55 year old on prednisone for RA B. 60 year old smoker C. 70 year old male D. 66 year old female E. 55 year old on prednisone for RA What does the Fracture Risk Assessment tool (FRAX) calculate? A. Risk of getting osteoporosis B. When to obtain a DEXA Scan C. 10 year probability of a major osteoporotic fracture or hip fracture alone D. 20 year probability of a major osteoporotic fracture or hip fracture alone C. 10 year probability of a major osteoporotic fracture or hip fracture alone How much vitamin D do all osteoporosis patients need? A. 500 - 1000 IU daily B. IU daily C. IU daily D. IU daily D. IU daily You have a patient with significant Osteoporosis. Which is the following drugs are used to treat osteoporosis and stimulate bone growth? A. Teriparatide B. Denosumab C. Raloxifene D. Alendronate A. Teriparatide Patient is complaining about low back pain and sciatica. The patellar reflex on the right is decreased. Which nerve innervation does this correspond with? A. L1-L3 B. S1 C. L3-L4 D. L2-L3 C. L3-L4 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation iliopsoas L2-L4 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Hip Abductors L4-S1 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Hip Adductors L2 - L4 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Quadriceps L2-L4 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Dorsiflexors L4-L5 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Hamstrings L4-L5 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Gluteus Max S1 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Plantar Flexors S1 Muscle Movement and Nerve Root Innervation Achilles S1 Your patient is a 52 year old woman, complaining of back pain brought on by activity and released by rest or leaning forward. What is the likely cause? A. Lumbar strain B. Radiculopathy C. Herniated Disc D. Spinal Stenosis D. Spinal Stenosis A patient comes in complaining of heel pain, which is the following is the most common cause of heel pain? A. Heel Spur B. Plantar Fasciitis C. Extensor tendinitis D. Achilles tendinitis B. Plantar Fasciitis What is the first line Treatment for Gout? Allopurinol How does Allopurinol work? Decreases uric acid production and decreases uric acid deposits in kidney Which of the following medications is used for Refractory Gout? A. Probenecid B. Prednisone C. Pegloticase D. Febuxostat C. Pegloticase Which of the following are used for Acute Gout Flare Management (First Line)? A. Naproxen B. Prednisone C. Colchicine D. Acetaminophen A. Naproxen (NSAIDS) In patients with rheumatoid arthritis and low disease, which of the following medication would work best? A. Leflunomide B. Etanercept C. Methotrexate D. Sulfasalazine E. Hydroxychloroquine E. Hydroxychloroquine used for mild to moderate rheumatoid arthritis less immunosuppressive than methotrexate What is the cause of Legg-Calve- Perthes disease? A. Lack of blood supply to the growth plate B. Damage to the growth plate C. Lack of blood supply to the femoral head D. Lack of blood supply to the femoral neck C. Lack of blood supply to the femoral head What age range is most common for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease? Ages 4-8 years old Which of the following describes Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis? A. Lack of blood supply to the capital femoral epiphysis B. Damage to the growth plate C. Displacement of the femoral neck D. Displacement of the femoral epiphysis from the femoral neck through the growth plate D. Displacement of the femoral epiphysis from the femoral neck through the growth plate Which of the following age ranges are seen in patient with Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis? A. 4-8 years old B. 5-7 years old C. 3-12 years old D. 10-16 years old D. 10-16 years old Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis is often associated with a painless limp, True or False? False, the limp is often Painful A 3 year old come into the office with Transient Tenosynovitis of the hip. What is the likely cause of this condition? A. Fracture of the growth plate B. Inflammation from a viral infection C. Overuse of the legs D. Loss of blood supply to the femoral head B. Inflammation from a viral infection Which of the following are the leading cause of blindness in patients over the age 60 years old? A. Cataracts B. Macular Degeneration C. Retinal Detachment D. Glaucoma B. Macular Degeneration What are three things that should be done if there is a Foreign Body found in the eye? Snellen Chart for visual Acuity Feuerstein Stain Culture and Sensitivity You have a patient with primary open angle glaucoma. You are going to prescribe latanoprost, which of the following side effects should you warm the patient about? A. Decrease in tear production B. Brown discoloration of the eye C. Dilation of the pupil D. Increase tear production B. Brown discoloration of the eye A 35 year old swimmer presents with ear pain, upon physical exam you find swelling and pain in the outer ear canal. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate treatment of choice? A. Neomycin drops B. Oral Ciprofloxacin C. Oral Penicillin D. Ofloxacin drops D. Ofloxacin drops Neomycin can cause hearing loss with prolonged used. Oral antibiotics are for extreme cases and Ofloxacin drops are okay for patients 13 years of ago and older. Most treatment for Otitis Media with Effusion will resolve within 3 months without intervention. If it does not result within 12 weeks the EENT specialist may recommended Myringotomy Tubes, True or False? True Otitis media with effusion requires antibiotic treatment, True or False? False, no treatment is needed You have a patient with external ear canal pain. You suspect a fungal infection. If hat are the 2 most common organism responsible for fungal otitis externa? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Candida albicans and candida C. Candida albicans and Aspergillus D. Aspergillus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Candida albicans and Aspergillus You examine your 12 year old patient with a fever of 101 degrees. She has excudatuve pharyngitis. She had a positive mono and positive rapid strep test, which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate for treatment? A. Cephalexin B. Penicillin V C. Azithromycin D. Amoxicillin C. Azithromycin Which of the following is used for the treatment of Vertigo? A. Meclizine B. Ibuprofen C. Ondansetron D. Paroxetine A. Meclizine What is the name of the Meneuver used to treat Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)? Epley Maneuver What is the name of the Meneuver used to treat Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) of Epley Maneuver is ineffective? Semont Maneuver Your patient brought in her 5 year old child. The child has strep throat for the 3rd time this year. The mom is asking for a referral for Tonsillectomy. Clinical practice guidelines recommends: A. 5 bouts of strep throat in 1 year B. Grade 2 enlarged tonsil C. 7 or more bouts of strep throat in 1 year D. Grade 1 enlarged tonsils E. 3 or more infections per year in 2 years C. 7 or more bouts of strep throat in 1 year How many infections does a patient need to get in one year to qualify for a tonsillectomy (AAP Guidelines)? ≥ 7 infections in one year You have just diagnosed a 9 year old with asthma, what is the initial therapy according to the GINA Guidelines? A. Oral Montelukast plus albuterol B. Low dose Budesonide when albuterol is used C. Medium dose Budesonide daily D. Lose dose Budesonide daily B. Low dose Budesonide when albuterol is used You have a 20 year old patient with asthma on a low dose Budesonide and Formoterol maintenance and deliver therapy (MART) . He is waking with symptoms twice weekly. What medication change will the NP? Increase to a medium dose Budesonide and Formoterol maintenance and deliver therapy (MART) Why is is essential to diagnose patients who have both asthma and COPD (ACO)? A. Giving a LABA without ICS can be fatal to patient with COPD B. Giving ICS to COPD patients can be fatal C. Giving LABA without ICS can be fatal to asthmatics D. Giving a SABA without ICS can be fatal to asthmatics C. Giving LABA without ICS can be fatal to asthmatics Your patient has an mMRC score of 3 and 1 exacerbation but no hospitalizations. The patient patient is currently taking oldaterol and albuterol. Which of the following medications should be added? A. Roflumilast B. Tiotropium C. Budesonide D. Azithromycin B. Tiotropium Which of the following side effects need to be monitored when children are taking Montelukast? A. Early puberty B. Hyperactivity C. Mood changes D. Dry nose C. Mood changes Marty a 20 year old male living in the dormitory at UTA come to the health clinic the a fever and complaints of fatigue and cough. Chest x ray confirms pneumonia. What is the most appropriate antibiotic? He is allergic to Macrolides. A. Amoxicillin 2g three times daily B. Doxycycline 100mg twice daily C. Azithromycin 500mg on first day then 250 md daily D. Clarithromycin 500mg twice daily B. Doxycycline 100mg twice daily Amoxicillin 1g three times daily is also correct A 75 year old female in your clinic with cough and fatigue. She was seen 3 weeks ago for a UTI and treated Amoxicillin-Clavulanate. Chest c Ray confirms pneumonia. Culture reveals strep pneumoniae. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for treatment? A. Moxifloxacin B. Azithromycin C. Doxycycline D. Amoxicillin A. Moxifloxacin Patient with COPD has had 1 exacerbation. A mMRC score of 1 and no hospitalizations. Which of the following medication should they be on? SATA A. Salbutamol B. Albuterol C. Budesonide/Fomoterol D. Fluticasone/Salmeterol E. Tiotropium A. Salbutamol B. Albuterol Bronchodilator (either a SABA or LABA) Which of the following conditions presents with a "slapped cheek" appearance? A. Tuberculosis B. Whooping cough C. Kawasaki Disease D. Lyme Disease E. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever F. Fifths Disease F. Fifths Disease Which of the following complications are common in non immuneconprimised adults with Fifths Disease? A. Chronic Bone marrow failure B. Chronic anemia C. Arthritis D. Migraines C. Arthritis Which of the following patients is a candidate to start Balaxavir? A. A 2 year old symptomatic with the flu for 48 hrs B. A 3 year old with asthma symptomatic with flu for 24 hrs B C. A healthy 5 year old symptomatic with the flu for 48 hours D. A healthy 12 year old recovering from the flu without complications C. A healthy 5 year old symptomatic with the flu for 48 hours Breakthrough chicken pox are normal after vaccination, True or False? True Which of the following antivirals are preferred in pregnancy? A. Oseltamivir B. Zanamivir C. Peramivir D. Baloxavir A. Oseltamivir What is the causative organism of Mononucleosis? Epstein-Barr virus Which of the following HPV viruses is an independent risk factor for oral Cancer? A. HPV 18 B. HPV 16 C. HPV 36 D. HPV 26 B. HPV 16 What age is shingles vaccine recommended? 50 years and older When should pregnant women get vaccines for Tdap? All pregnant women should get this booster with each pregnancy between weeks 27 and 36 weeks gestation Why is it important to stop playing sports if you have Mononucleosis? Splenomegaly A six year old with Lyme disease come into the office, what is the First line of treatment? (With Dose) Doxycycline 4mg/kg/day BID divided into BID dosing What is the dosing for a 6 year old with Lyme disease if Amoxicillin is being used? 50 mg/kg/day (TID), max 500mg/dose What is an identifying symptom of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? A. Maculopaular rash at site of tick bite B. Maculopapular rash on palms and soles C. Petechia occurring 24 hrs after the tick bite D. Maculopapular rash spreading from face down B. Maculopapular rash on palms and soles Which of the following is the First Line treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? A. Chloramphenicol B. Levofloxacin C. Doxycycline D. Azithromycin C. Doxycycline Adults 100mg BID after loading dose of 200mg Which disease presents with an erythematous, Maculopapular rash, starting on the trunk and sparing the face. The patient also has a cough, runny nose, conjunctivitis and Koplik Spots? A. Roscola B. Rubella C. Fifths Disease D. Rubeola D. Rubeola Measles Vaccine should be given to the patient within 72 hours of exposure to measles as post exposure prophylaxis, True or False? True A 36 year old pregnant woman with no health problems presents with dysuria and frequency of urination. Her urinalysis findings included results positive for nitrites and leukocytes. You evaluate these results and consider which of the following antibiotics to be most appropriate? A. Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim B. Nitrofurantoin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Amoxicillin D. Amoxicillin Cephalosporins and Fosfomycin also can be given to pregnant women for a UTI You have a five year old patient with Enuresis. Which of the following is the most effective therapy for enuresis? A. Limiting daytime liquids B. Alarm Therapy C. Tricyclic Antidepressant D. Desmopressin (DDAVP) B. Alarm Therapy What is the most common cause of UTIs in female children? A. Constipation B. Not drinking enough water C. Wiping from front to back D. Wiping from back to front D. Wiping from back to front In which of the following patients would you treat asymptomatic bacteruria? A. 15 year old sexually active female B. 26 year old pregnant female C. 80 year old female D. 50 year old menopausal female B. 26 year old pregnant female In a 60 year old female aging recurrent UTIs , which of the following treatments should be considered: A. Vaginal progesterone B. Vaginal estrogen C. Daily yogurt D. Cranberry Juice B. Vaginal estrogen In a child, the NP suspects Vesicoureteral reflux, she will order: A. Voiding Cystourethrogram B. A renal ultra sound C. A renal MRI d. A CT Scan A. Voiding Cystourethrogram Patient that's 4 years old comes in with a painless abdominal mass on the left side. The patients pee is a pink color. The patient also came in with a low grade fever of 99.0F. Which of the following could be the patients condition? A. Wilms tumor B. Kidney stone C. Urinary Tract Infection D. Acute Pyelonephritis A. Wilms tumor Why is a chest X-ray taken when you suspect Wilms tumor? The lungs are the initial location of metastasis Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for patients with Hypertension and Chronic Kidney Disease? A. Olmesartan B. Amlodipine C. HCTZ D. Metoprolol A. Olmesartan ACEs and ARBs are first line drugs for patients with chronic kidney diseases and hypertension. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers are added if needed You just got your patient with CKDs labs back. Which of the following is indicative of macrovascsular renal disease? A. An abuminuria greater than 100mg/gram B: An abuminuria greater than 300mg/gram C: An abuminuria greater than 200mg/gram D. An abuminuria greater than 50mg/gram B. An abuminuria greater than 300mg/gram You just got your patient with CKDs labs back. Which of the following is indicative of microvascsular renal disease? A. An abuminuria greater than 100mg/gram B: An abuminuria greater than 300mg/gram C. An abuminuria between 30-300 D. An abuminuria less than 30 C. An abuminuria between 30-300 You patient has had nausea and vomiting for 2 days. Which of the following would indicate stage 1 Acute Kidney Injury: A. Creatinine increases 2-3 time baseline B. Anuria for 12 hours C. Creatinine increase of greater than or equal to 0.3 milligrams per deciliter D. Urine output of less than 0.5 milliliters per kilogram C. Creatinine increase of greater than or equal to 0.3 milligrams per deciliter Patient has a history of poorly controlled diabetes and hypertension. She has a GFR of 75. As her primary care provider, you would: A. Check her blood sugar B. Check her HbA1c C. Prescribe a calcium channel blocker D. Check her urine for albumin D. Check her urine for albumin Which of the following lab results is associated with Hypothyroidism? A. TSH Elevated, T4 Low B. TSH Elevated, T4 Normal C. TSH Elevated, T4 high D. TSH Normal, T4 and T3 high E. TSH Normal T3 high A. TSH Elevated, T4 Low Which of the following lab results is associated with Subclinical Hypothyroidism? A. TSH Elevated, T4 Low B. TSH Elevated, T4 Normal C. TSH Elevated, T4 high D. TSH Normal, T4 and T3 high E. TSH Normal T3 high B. TSH Elevated, T4 Normal Which of the following lab results is associated with Hyperthyroidism? A. TSH Elevated, T4 Low B. TSH Low, T4 Normal C. TSH Low, T4 high D. TSH Normal, T4 and T3 high E. TSH Normal T3 high C. TSH Low, T4 high Which of the following lab results is associated with Subclinical Hyperthyroidism ? A. TSH Elevated, T4 Low B. TSH Low, T4 Normal C. TSH Low, T4 high D. TSH Normal, T4 and T3 high E. TSH Normal T3 high B. TSH Low, T4 Normal REFER OUT A 45 year old woman presents with increasing fatigue for several months. She has gained 10lbs, despite a decrease in her appetite. She currently takes no medications. Lab studies confirm that TSH is elevated. She has a BMI of 23. Weight is 150lbs. Which of the following is the best Tx for this patients? A. Levothyroxine 25mcg/day B. Levothyroxine 50mcg/day C. Levothyroxine 100mcg/day D. Levothyroxine 112mcg/day E. Levothyroxine 150mcg/day C. Levothyroxine 100mcg/day Patients original body weight was 140 140lbs to kg is 63kg 63kg x 1.6 = 100.8 mcg Mary is a 26 year old female here for a yearly exam. And is found to have a TSH of 10 (elevated), and free T4 of 1.21 (normal). She is having symptoms of fatigue and constipation. You instruct the patient: A. That she needs and Endocrinologist B. To start Armour Thyroid 100mg C. To start Levothyroxine 25mcg and return in 6 months to recheck thyroid labs C. To start Levothyroxine 25mcg and return in 6 months to recheck thyroid labs The patient has Subclinical hypothyroidism and will need to start Levothyroxine 25-50 mcg. If the patients TSH is 10, they need to be m on monitored every 3 months Your patient with hypothyroidism would like treatment with Liotrix. Which of the following describes Liotrix? SATA A. Liotrix is cheaper than Levothyroxine B. Liotrix replaced T3 C. Liotrix replaced T3 and T4 in the same ratio as Levothyroxine D. Liotrix is more expensive than Levothyroxine E. Liotrix replaced T3 and T4 D. Liotrix is more expensive than Levothyroxine E. Liotrix replaced T3 and T4 How much Levothyroxine is giving to a 51 year old Adult who weights 155lbs with a BMI of 22 with no commodities? A. 12.5 mcg/day B. 25 mcg/day C. 50 mcg/day D. 115 mcg/day E. 150 mcg/day C. 50 mcg/day How much Levothyroxine is giving to a 51 year old Adult who weights 155lbs with a BMI of 22 with coronary artery disease? A. 12.5 mcg/day B. 25 mcg/day C. 50 mcg/day D. 115 mcg/day E. 150 mcg/day B. 25 mcg/day How much Levothyroxine is giving to a 70 year old Adult who weights 155lbs with a BMI of 22 with no commodities? A. 12.5 mcg/day B. 25 mcg/day C. 50 mcg/day D. 115 mcg/day E. 150 mcg/day B. 25 mcg/day How much Levothyroxine is giving to a 70 year old Adult who weights 155lbs with a BMI of 22 with CAD to start? A. 12.5 mcg/day B. 25 mcg/day C. 50 mcg/day D. 115 mcg/day E. 150 mcg/day A. 12.5 mcg/day What administration instructions should you give to your patient about taking Levothyroxine? SATA A. Take medications in an empty stomach B. Take medications with food C. Take medication 30-60 minutes before breakfast D. Take medication with a glass of milk or orange juice to help with absorption E. Do not take medications with Calcium, iron, or antacids A. Take medications in an empty stomach C. Take medication 30-60 minutes before breakfast E. Do not take medications with Calcium, iron, or antacids You start a patient in Levothyroxine 112mcg six weeks ago. She is returning to have thyroid hormones checked. The TSH is still slightly elevated. The NP should: A. Increase Levothyroxine to 125 mcg B: continue with current dose and will repeat TSH in 6 weeks C. Obtain T4 D. Increase Levothyroxine to 150 mcg A. Increase Levothyroxine to 125 mcg Your patient asks, "how long does it take to get the full effects of radioactive iodine"? A. 2-3 months B. 5-6 months C. 4-5 months D. 12 months A. 2-3 months A 25 year old female presents complaining about nervousness, palpitations, tremors, and weight loss. On examination you note retracted eye lids and a brownish discoloration of the shins. The NP refers to endocrine. The endocrinologist will likely: A. Schedule for thyroidectomy B. Start radioactive iodine C. Prescribe Methimazole D. Prescribe Propylthiouracil C. Prescribe Methimazole First line medication for Hyperthyroidism. Avoiding pregnancy Cortisol is regulated by: A. Pituitary and adrenal glands B. Hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis C. Adrenal glands D. Pituitary and thyroid glands B. Hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis What is the treatment for Cushing Disease if a tumor is present? A. Ketoconazole B. Mitotane C. Metyrapone D. Transsphenoidal Resesction E. Mifepristone D. Transsphenoidal Resesction Surgical treatment is first line of a tumor is present What is the treatment for Cushing Disease that's used if a patient also has Type 2 diabetes? A. Ketoconazole B. Mitotane C. Metyrapone D. Transsphenoidal Resesction E. Mifepristone E. Mifepristone Your patient has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism and wants to know if the disease can be cured. What is the only know cure for hyperparathyroidism? A. Bisphosphonates B. Thyroidectomy C. Parathyroidetomy D. Radiation to the parathyroid C. Parathyroidetomy Which of the following labs is associated with Hyperparathyroidism? A. ↑ PTH ↓ ionized calcium ↑ Phosphorus B. ↓ PTH ↓ ionized calcium ↑ Phosphorus C. ↑ PTH ↑ ionized calcium ↑Phosphorus D. ↑ PTH ↑ ionized calcium ↓Phosphorus D. ↑ PTH ↑ ionized calcium ↓Phosphorus Which of the following labs is associated with Hypoparathyroidism? A. ↑ PTH ↓ ionized calcium ↑ Phosphorus B. ↓ PTH ↓ ionized calcium ↑ Phosphorus C. ↑ PTH ↑ ionized calcium ↑Phosphorus D. ↑ PTH ↑ ionized calcium ↓Phosphorus B. ↓ PTH ↓ ionized calcium ↑ Phosphorus Your patient has been diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism and wants to know if the disease can be managed. Which is the following would be included in the management of mild hypoparathyroidism? A. Bisphosphonates B. Thyroidectomy C. Parathyroidetomy D. Calcium Carbonate and High dose Vitamin D E. Natpara (PTH analog) D. Calcium Carbonate and High dose Vitamin D Which of the following factors determines the ability of local anesthetic to penetrate the axon membrane? A. Protein binding B. Lipid solubility C. Renal clearance D. Plasma half life B. Lipid solubility What is the primary benefit of adding epinephrine to lidocaine for local anesthesia? A. Shortens onset time B. Increases systemic absorption C. Reduces risk of toxicity by prolonging anesthesia D. Stimulated immune response C. Reduces risk of toxicity by prolonging anesthesia Which is a systemic risk when applying topical anesthetics over larger areas or broken skin? A. Decreased drug absorption B. GI distress C. Increased systemic absorption D. Hypokalemia C. Increased systemic absorption Which of the following opioids is considered to be 100 times stronger than Morphine? A. Tapentadol B. Fentanyl C. Pentazocine D. Tramadol B. Fentanyl Which drug is used as an emergency reversal agent for opioid overdose? A. Methylnaltrexone B. Tramadol C. Naloxone D. Pentazocine C. Naloxone Which opioid agent agonists-antagonist can induce withdrawal inpatients dependent on pure opioids? A. Methylnaltrexone B. Tapentadol C. Pentazocine D. Fentanyl C. Pentazocine What is the mechanism of action of Tramadol? A. Strong mu agonist B. Kappa antagonist C. Weak opioid agonist + reuptake inhibitor D. Pure opioid antagonist C. Weak opioid agonist + reuptake inhibitor Which opioid is used to specifically treat opioid induced constipation? A. Naloxone B. Methylnaltrexone C. Fentanyl D. Tapentadol B. Methylnaltrexone Which formulation of naloxone is NOT effective due to first pass metabolism? A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intranasal D. Oral D. Oral Which opioid has equivalent efficacy to OxyContin but causes less constipation? A. Tapentadol B. Fentanyl C. Tramadol D. Morphine A. Tapentadol Which analgesic inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin? A. Tapentadol B. Ibuprofen C. Tramadol D. Morphine E. Acetaminophen C. Tramadol Which non opioid is safest for use in children due to lack of Reye's syndrome risk? A. Acetaminophen B. Aspirin C. Ibuprofen D. Naproxen A. Acetaminophen What is the antidote for acetaminophen? A. Flumazenil B. Naloxone C. Acetylcysteine D. Methylnaloxone C. Acetylcysteine What is a serious adverse effect of Tramadol? A. Renal failure B. Seizures C. Bleeding D. Hypotension B. Seizures Which NSAID is a consecutive COX inhibitor with Antiplatelet effects? A. Celecoxib B. Naproxen C. Aspirin D. Ibuprofen C. Aspirin Which NSAID is selective for COX-2 and is associated with increased cardiovascular risk? A. Celecoxib B. Naproxen C. Aspirin D. Ibuprofen A. Celecoxib Which medication is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and pregnancy? A. Celecoxib B. Naproxen C. Aspirin D. Ibuprofen A. Celecoxib Molly came in for period pain. The patient is rated a 6/10 and she wants to take one of the following NSAIDs. She is also being treated for a yeast infection, with Fluconazole, as her pH tends to be off whiting her period. Which of the following medication are contraindicated for her to use for pain management at this time due to drug interaction? A. Celecoxib B. Naproxen C. Aspirin D. Ibuprofen E. Acetaminophen A. Celecoxib Levels of Celecoxib increase with Fluconazole Which condition is a contraindication for glucocorticoid therapy? A. Asthma B. Psoriasis C. Systemic fungal infection D. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic fungal infection What is the purpose of tapering glucocorticoids before discontinuation? A. To prevent renal failure B. To allow immune system to adjust C. To prevent adrenal insufficiency D. To avoid GI ulcers C. To prevent adrenal insufficiency Long term use of Glucocorticoids can cause: A. Addison's disease B. Cushing's disease C. Graves' disease D. Diabetes insipidus B. Cushing's disease Which is a common interaction between acetaminophen and alcohol? A. Hypoglycemia B. Liver toxicity C. Increased sedation D. Constipation B. Liver toxicity Which drug should not be given orally due to the first pass metabolism? A. Tramadol B. Naloxone C. Morphine D. Tapentadol B. Naloxone Which of the following should not be obtained while on glucocorticoids? A. FluMist B. Tdap vaccine C. Hepatitis A vaccine D. Pneumococcal vaccine A. FluMist You are staring a patient on a short regimen of steroids. Which of the following drugs should be discontinued in the patient before starting? A. Semaglutide B. Metaxalone C. Levothyroxine D. Naproxen D. Naproxen When used concurrently with steroids it significantly increases the risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding, therefore it should be discontinued or avoided when starting steroids.