ATI Med-Surg Retake Exam
Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026/2027
Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who has
hyperkalemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse
anticipate administering?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate)
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
Rationale: Kayexalate binds potassium in the intestines to help
lower serum potassium levels in hyperkalemia.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
reports increased shortness of breath and a productive cough with
green sputum. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer bronchodilator as ordered
B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
C. Obtain sputum sample for culture and sensitivity
D. Encourage high-protein diet
Rationale: Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify the causative
organism so appropriate antibiotics can be given.
,3. A client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which lab
value should the nurse monitor?
A. PT/INR
B. PT/INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Rationale: PT/INR are used to monitor the therapeutic effect of
warfarin and ensure safe anticoagulation.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about diet management for heart
failure. Which instruction is appropriate?
A. Increase fluid intake to 3–4 liters per day
B. Limit sodium intake to 2 g/day
C. Avoid protein-rich foods
D. Increase potassium-rich foods without restriction
Rationale: Sodium restriction helps prevent fluid retention and
worsening heart failure symptoms.
5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction presents with
sudden chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Administer aspirin
B. Obtain vital signs and assess pain
C. Apply oxygen
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: The nurse must first assess the client to determine
severity and monitor for life-threatening complications.
,6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a client receiving
furosemide for heart failure?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide can cause potassium loss,
leading to hypokalemia.
7. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a fasting blood glucose
of 250 mg/dL. Which symptom should the nurse assess for first?
A. Blurred vision
B. Polyuria and polydipsia
C. Weight gain
D. Constipation
Rationale: Hyperglycemia leads to osmotic diuresis, causing
polyuria and polydipsia.
8. A client is admitted with a small bowel obstruction. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer analgesics as prescribed
B. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Provide high-fiber diet
Rationale: NG tube insertion helps relieve pressure and prevent
vomiting and aspiration.
, 9. Which of the following findings indicates worsening liver failure
in a client with cirrhosis?
A. Mild jaundice
B. Increasing ascites and confusion
C. Fatigue
D. Spider angiomas
Rationale: Ascites and encephalopathy indicate progression of liver
failure.
10. A client with diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. When
should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
A. At the same time every day
B. 30 minutes before meals
C. Only when blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL
D. Before bedtime only
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin and should be
administered once daily at the same time to maintain steady blood
glucose levels.
11. A nurse is caring for a post-operative client who reports
shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. What is the most
appropriate action?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Assess oxygen saturation and notify the provider for possible
pulmonary embolism
C. Apply anti-embolism stockings
D. Administer pain medication
Rationale: Sudden pleuritic pain and dyspnea post-surgery may
indicate pulmonary embolism, a medical emergency.
Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026/2027
Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who has
hyperkalemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse
anticipate administering?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate)
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
Rationale: Kayexalate binds potassium in the intestines to help
lower serum potassium levels in hyperkalemia.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
reports increased shortness of breath and a productive cough with
green sputum. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer bronchodilator as ordered
B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
C. Obtain sputum sample for culture and sensitivity
D. Encourage high-protein diet
Rationale: Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify the causative
organism so appropriate antibiotics can be given.
,3. A client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which lab
value should the nurse monitor?
A. PT/INR
B. PT/INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Rationale: PT/INR are used to monitor the therapeutic effect of
warfarin and ensure safe anticoagulation.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about diet management for heart
failure. Which instruction is appropriate?
A. Increase fluid intake to 3–4 liters per day
B. Limit sodium intake to 2 g/day
C. Avoid protein-rich foods
D. Increase potassium-rich foods without restriction
Rationale: Sodium restriction helps prevent fluid retention and
worsening heart failure symptoms.
5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction presents with
sudden chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Administer aspirin
B. Obtain vital signs and assess pain
C. Apply oxygen
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: The nurse must first assess the client to determine
severity and monitor for life-threatening complications.
,6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a client receiving
furosemide for heart failure?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide can cause potassium loss,
leading to hypokalemia.
7. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a fasting blood glucose
of 250 mg/dL. Which symptom should the nurse assess for first?
A. Blurred vision
B. Polyuria and polydipsia
C. Weight gain
D. Constipation
Rationale: Hyperglycemia leads to osmotic diuresis, causing
polyuria and polydipsia.
8. A client is admitted with a small bowel obstruction. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer analgesics as prescribed
B. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Provide high-fiber diet
Rationale: NG tube insertion helps relieve pressure and prevent
vomiting and aspiration.
, 9. Which of the following findings indicates worsening liver failure
in a client with cirrhosis?
A. Mild jaundice
B. Increasing ascites and confusion
C. Fatigue
D. Spider angiomas
Rationale: Ascites and encephalopathy indicate progression of liver
failure.
10. A client with diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. When
should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
A. At the same time every day
B. 30 minutes before meals
C. Only when blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL
D. Before bedtime only
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin and should be
administered once daily at the same time to maintain steady blood
glucose levels.
11. A nurse is caring for a post-operative client who reports
shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. What is the most
appropriate action?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Assess oxygen saturation and notify the provider for possible
pulmonary embolism
C. Apply anti-embolism stockings
D. Administer pain medication
Rationale: Sudden pleuritic pain and dyspnea post-surgery may
indicate pulmonary embolism, a medical emergency.
